-V'HI* »WW*m VV ARMY MEDICAL LIBRARY WASHINGTON Founded 1836 Section- Number 3.2...S..3.3.: :_«< ipo 3—10543 Form 113c, W. D., S. G. O. (Revised June 13. 193G) X EXAMINATIONS ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, PRACTICE OF PHYSIC, SURGERY, CHEMISTRY, MATERIA MEDICA, AND PHARMACY; Sox the &se of QtvibznlB. BY ROBERT HOOPER, M.D. THIRD AMERICAN, FROM THE LAST LONDON EDITION. REVISED AND ENLARGED. NEW YOR] J. & H. G. LANGLEY, 8 ASTOR HOUSE. 1846. w I US' Entered according to the Act of Congress, in the year 1845, by J. & H. G. LANGLEY, in the Clerk's office of the District Court of the United States for the Southern District of New York. Iter., & Print., 16 Spruce Street. TO THE GENTLEMEN STUDYING MEDICINE, AND PREPARING FOR THEIR EXAMINATION, THIS LITTLE WORK IS DEDICATED AS A MARK OF THE AUTHOR'S ATTENTION TO THEIR INTEREST AND WELFARE. PREFACE. The high estimation in which " Hooper's Manual of Examinations" is held, by the Mem- bers of the Medical profession, as well as students ; the fact of its being now completely out of print; and the daily inquiries made for it, have induced the Publishers to offer a new American edition of this valuable work. This volume is a correct re-print of the latest English edition, with such additions and cor- rections, as were deemed necessary to render it as complete as the size of the volume would admit. January, 1846. «* EXAMINATIONS IN ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, PRACTICE OF PHYSIC, SURGERY, MATERIA MEDICA, CHEMIS. TRY, AND PHARMACY. FOR THE INSTRUCTION OF STUDENTS. ANATOMY. Question. What are the divisions of the science of Anatomy ? Answer. The science of Anatomy is divided into Osteology, Syndesmology, Myology, Bur- sology, Angeiology, Neurology, Adenology, Splanchnology, and Hygrology. Q. What are the solids of the body ? A. The solids of the body are the bones, cartilages, ligaments, muscles, cellular sub- stance, membranes, vessels, nerves, glands, viscera, and adipose substance. Q. How do anatomists divide the skeleton 1 A. The human skeleton is divided into head, trunk, and extremities. The head is subdi- vided into cranium, or skull, and face. The upper extremities into brachium, antibrachium, carpus, metacarpus, and phalanges. The lower 8 ANATOMY. extremities into femur, eras, tarsus, metatarsus, and phalanges. The trunk is subdivided into spine, thorax, and pelvis. Q. How many bones compose the cranium 1 A. Eight: namely, one os frontis, two ossa parietalia, one os occipitis, two ossa temporalia, one os ethmoides, and the os sphenoides. Q. What is the union of the bones of the cranium called 1 A. Suture. Q. What are the names of the sutures of the cranium ? A. The sutures of the cranium are five in number, and are called the coronal, the sagit- tal, the lambdoidal, and the two squamous. Q. How many kinds of sutures are there ? A. Two : the true and the false. Q. What is the name of the suture which connects the frontal with the parietal bones 1 A. The coronal suture. Q. By what suture is the occipital bone united to the parietal bones ? A. By the lambdoidal suture. Q. What name is given to the suture which connects the parietal bones ? A. It is called the sagittal suture. Q. What are the peculiarities of the frontal bone in the foetus ? A. The frontal bone in the foetus is divided down the middle ; it has no sinuses ; and neither the orbitar plates nor superciliary ridges are completely formed. Q. Where is the os frontis situated •' ANATOMY. 9 A. The os frontis is situated in the anterior part of the cranium, and superior part of the face. Q. What is the shape of the os frontis ? A. It somewhat resembles a cockle-shell. Q. Where is the lachrymal depression situ- ated ? A. The lachrymal depression is situated on the orbitar plate, and behind the external angu- lar process. Q. Describe the parietal bones. A. The parietal bones are of a quadrangular shape, are externally convex, internally con- cave, and marked with grooves for the menin- geal arteries. They form the lateral and supe- rior part of the cranium. Q. Describe the situation of the sphenoid bone. A. The sphenoid bone is situated in the mid- dle of the basis of the cranium, extending un- derneath, from one temple across to the other. Q. Into how many portions is the temporal bone distinguished ? A. Generally into three portions, viz. a squamous, a mastoid, and petrous portion, Q. In what bone is the organ of hearing situated ? A. In the petrous portion of the temporal bone. Q. How many tables have the bones of the cranium ? » A. Two : an external and an internal. 10 ANATOMY. Q. What is the name of the substance which unites the two tables of the cranium 1 A. It is called diploe or meditullium. Q. What is attached to the internal angular process of the frontal bone 1 A. There are two muscles attached to the internal angular process: viz. the corrugator supercilii and the trochlearis, or obliquus superior. Q. Describe the.occipital bone. A. The occipital bone forms the posterior and inferior part of the skull, is of an irregular figure, externally convex, internally concave. It has many depressions and elevations, and is connected, at its inferior part, by means of a projection, called the basilar process, to the sphenoid bone. Q. Describe the sphenoid bone. A. The sphenoid bone is divided into a body and wings. It has many processes, depres- sions, and foramina, and is connected to all the bones of the cranium. Q. What are the processes of the sphenoid bone 1 A. The principal processes of this bone are, the two pterygoid processes, the hamular pro- cess, the spinous processes, the orbitar pro- cesses, the temporal processes, the ethmoidal process, the olivary process, and the anterior and posterior clinoid processes. Q. What bones are united by the false sutures 1 A. The bones of the face and the temporal ANATOMY. 11 bones are united to the parietal bones by the false or squamous suture. Q. Through what foramina do the olfactory nerves pass out of the cranium ? A. Through the foramina cribrosa, which are in the upper part of the ethmoid bone. Q. Where is the foramen magnum situated ? A. In the occipital bone, at the inferior part between the condyles and behind the basilary process. Q. To what bone does the crista galli belong ? A. To the ethmoid bone : it forms the pro- jecting process within the cranium, to which the falciform process of the dura mater is at- tached. Q. To what bone does the sella turcica belong 1 A. To the sphenoid bone : it is placed in the middle, and projects into the cavity of the cranium. Q. What does the foramen rotundum of the sphenoid bone transmit 1 A. The foramen rotundum transmits the second branch of the fifth pair of nerves. Q. Describe the frontal bone. A. The frontal bone has some resemblance to a cockle-shell ; it is placed in the anterior part of the skull, and forms the forehead and upper part of the orbits. It receives the an- terior lobe of the cerebrum, forms a notch for the ethmoid bone, is externally convex, inter- nally concave, and has several elevations and depressions. 12 ANATOMY. Q. Where is the os ethmoides situated 1 A. The os ethmoides is situated at the root of the nose, in a notch between the orbitar plates of the frontal bone. Q. What bone separates the ethmoid from the occipital bone ? A. The sphenoid bone. Q. Through what foramen does the third branch of the fifth pair of nerves pass ? A. The third branch of the fifth pair of nerves goes through the foramen ovale. Q. At what angle of the parietal bone is the groove for the middle meningeal artery ? A. The middle meningeal artery of the dura mater runs in a groove at the anterior inferior angle of the parietal bone. Q. What rests on the upper surface of the cuneiform process of the occipital bone ? A. The medulla oblongata rests upon the upper surface of the cuneiform or basilar process. Q. What is attached to the lateral parts of the internal crucial spine of the occipital bone % A. The tentorium, which separates the cere- brum from the cerebellum. Q. In what bone is the foramen opticum ? A. The foramen opticum is in the sphenoid bone. Q. Is the body of the sphenoid bone solid ? A. No; at the under and fore part of its body, the two sphenoidal sinuses are formed. Q,. Do they communicate ? ANATOMY. 13 A. No ; there is an osseous septum or plate between them. Q. Has the space within the clinoid pro- cesses any particular name ? A. Yes ; it is called Sella Turcica. Q. What gland is situated in the sella tur- cica 1 A. The pituitary gland, which was anciently supposed to secrete the mucus of the nose. Q. Where is the foramen opticum found in the skulH A. In the orbit, at the very bottom. Q. What is the use of the foramen opticum 1 . A. It transmits the optic nerve to the eye. Q. Why does the optic nerve take a wavino- course in the orbit ? A. To prevent it from being overstretched in the different motions of the eye. Q. What are the eminences of the temporal bone1? A. The principal eminences are the mastoid process, the zygomatic process, the styloid process, vaginal process, and the ridge on the petrous portion. Q. What is the use of the meatus auditorius internus 1 A. The meatus auditorius internus transmits the portio dura and portio mollis. Q. To what nerve does the fissura Glasseri give exit % A. The chorda tympani. Q. What is the name of the suture that 1 14 ANATOMY. connects the bones of the face to those of the cranium 1 A. The bones of the cranium are connected to those of the face by means of the transverse suture. Q. How many bones compose the face 1 A. The face is formed by fourteen bones j two superior maxillary, two nasal, two pala- tine, two jugal, two inferior spongy, two lach- rymal, the vomer, and the inferior maxillary bone. Q. What is attached to the styloid process of the temporal bone 1 A. Three muscles, viz. the stylo-pharyn- geus, the stylo-glossus, and the stylo-hyoideus ; also the stylo-maxillary, and stylo-hyoid liga- ments. Q. Enumerate the principal elevations of the occipital bone. A. The principal elevations of the occipital bone are, its condyles, a longitudinal ridge, a superior and an inferior transverse ridge, a tuberosity in the centre of the superior trans- verse ridge : these are on the external sur- face. On the internal suface is seen the crucial spine. Q. To what bone does the mastoid process belong 1 A. It is a part of the temporal bone. Q. Where is it situated 1 A. Immediately behind the ear. Q. How many bones compose the orbit 1 A. Seven: viz. os frontis, os ethmoides, os ANATOMY. 15 sphenoides, os lachrymale, os jugale, os palati, and the os maxillare superius. Q. What passes through the foramen lace- rum orbitale superius \ A. The third, the fourth, the first branch of the fifth and sixth pair of nerves, and the oph- thalmic vein. Q. How many bones compose the lower jaw? A. One, in the adult, the inferior maxillary bone. Q. What bones compose the nose 1 A. Fourteen: the two ossa nasi, two ossa maxillaria, and the os frontis on its upper and fore part; the os ethmoides, and two ossa unguis on its upper, inner, and lateral part; the two maxillaria superiora, two ossa palati, os sphenoides, two ossa spongiosa inferiora, and the vomer, on its under, inner, and back part. Q. What bones form the septum narium 1 A. The azygos process of the ethmoid bone, the vomer, and the crest formed by the union of the palatal processes of the superior max- illary and palate bones. Q. To what bone do the superior turbinated bones, as they are called, belong ? A. To the ethmoid bone, of which they are a part. Q. In what bone is the antrum of Highmore situated ? A. In the superior maxillary bone, behind the cheeks. 16 ANATOMY. Q. Has it any opening or communication with any part ? A. Yes : it has one opening into the nostril. Q. Where is the opening ? A. Under the middle spongy bone. Q. Is the body of the sphenoid bone hollow or solid ? A. Hollow : it contains the sphenoidal sinuses, which communicate with the nose. Q. What separates the antrum of Highmore from the orbit ? A. The orbitar plate of the superior maxil- lary bone. V Q. Is there any communication between the orbit and the nostril 1 A. Yes: by the ductus ad nasum, to con- vey the tears into the nose. Q. How many bones are there in the tym- panum 1 A. Four: the incus, stapes, malleus, and os orbiculare. Q. To what bone of the cranium does the styloid process belong 1 A. To the temporal bone. Q. What are the foramina of the superior maxillary bone 1 A. The foramina of this bone are, the infra- orbitar foramen, the foramen incisivum, the spheno-maxillary fissure, and the foramen of the antrum maxillare. Q. What bones form the foramen lacerum posterius 1 A. The temporal and occipital bones. ANATOMY. 17 Q. What passes through the canalis caroti- deus 1 A. The canalis carotideus transmits the carotid artery and the carotid plexus. Q. What are the processes of the sphenoid bone called, which form the sides of the pos- terior nostril 1 A. The pterygoid processes. Q. What pass through the foramen lacerum in basi cranii ? A. The internal jugular vein, the glosso- pharyngeal, pneumogastric, and spinal acces- sory nerves. Q- Do the ossa palati form any part of the orbit ? A. Yes : a portion of the palate bone rises into the inferior part of it. Q. Where is the vomer situated 1 A. In the centre of the nostrils, having the sphenoid and ethmoid bones at its upper.part, the superior maxillary and palatine bones at its lower part, and the cartilaginous septum of the nose on the anterior part. Q. Where is the Eustachian tube situated ? A. It passes from the tympanum of the ear obliquely forwards and inwards, and opens in the fauces, near the posterior nostril. Q. How many foramina has the inferior maxillary bone ? A. It has only two, which belong to the canalis mentalis: one placed externally and anteriorly, the other placed posteriorly and internally. 1* 18 ANATOMY. Q. Point out the situation of the zygomatic process on the face. A. It forms the lateral and superior part of the cheek, extending anteriorly from the ex- tremity of the ear. Q. Where is the os (unguis situated ? A. The os unguis is situated in the orbit, at the internal angle immediately underneath the meeting of the eyelashes. Q. What is the name of the portions of the os ethmoides which hang down into the nos- trils ? A. The superior turbinated bones and azygos process. Q. What sinuses communicate with the cavity of the nostrils ? A. There are five sinuses which enter the cavity of the nostrils ; viz. the frontal, ethmoi- dal, and sphenoidal sinuses at the upper part, and the two maxillary sinuses on the sides. Q. What is the shape of the os malse .' A. It is of the quadrangular shape. Q. Enumerate the foramina of the sphenoid bone. A. The foramina of the sphenoid bone are, the foramina optica, foramina lacera orbitalia, foramina rotunda, foramina ovalia, foramina spinosa, and the foramina Vidiana. Q. What bones of the cranium are called ossa plana ? A. The orbitar plates of the ethmoid bone. Q. What are the elevations of the superior maxillary bone ? ANATOMY. 19 A. The elevations of the superior maxillary bone are, the alveolar process, the spinous process, the palatine process, the nasal process, the orbitar process, the malar process, and the bulbous process. Q. What are the projections of the inferior maxillary bone ? A. The principal projections of the inferior maxillary bone are, the coronoid and condyloid processes ; the angles ; a ridge passing exter- nally, and another internally, from the base of the coronoid process to the commencement of the chin * a projection on the inner and outer side of each angle ; a projection behind the symphysis, and another on each side the base of the chin. ^ Q. What is the division of the internal ear 1 A. The internal ear, or labyrinth, is divided into the vestibule, the semi-circular canals, and the cochlea. Q. How many teeth are there in the adult, and how are they divided ? A. In the adult there are sixteen teeth in each jaw; and they are divided into three classes on each side of the jaw : two incisores, one cuspidatus, two bicuspides, and three mo- lares. Q. What are the bones called which com- pose the spine ? A. Vertebrae, of which there are twenty- four. Q. On what vertebrae is the rotation of the head performed ? 20 ANATOMY. A. The head rotates upon the second cer- vical vertebra, by the intervention of the atlas. Q. Describe the spine. A. The spine is a long, bony, and cartilagi- nous, hollow column, consisting of twenty-four bones, called vertebrae, which extend from the occipital bone to the os sacrum, and have many processes and foramina. Q. What is there peculiar to the second vertebrae ? A. It has the odontoid process at the upper part of its body. Q. What is there peculiar to the atlas ? A. The atlas has no body nor spinous pro- cess : its transverse processes are longer than those,, of the rest, and terminate in an obtuse point. The superior articular processes are very large, and are hollowed out for the con- dyles of the occipital bone. There are two tuberosities within-its large arch, for the attach- ment of the transverse ligament; it has a groove behind each superior articular process, and there is a surface for the odontoid process to move on. Q. How would you distinguish a dorsal ver- tebra from the rest ? A. The bodies of the dorsal vertebrae are larger than the cervical, and smaller than the lumbar ; they are more flattened at the sides, more convex before, and more concave be- hind, than any of the other vertebrae ; the spi- nous process terminates in a round tubercle ; the transverse processes are very thick; they ANATOMY. 21 have no foramen, as in the cervical; there is an articulating surface on the side of the body, and a superficial one in the points of the trans- verse processes. Q. Where is the os sacrum situated 1 A. The os sacrum is situated at the pos- terior and lower part of the trunk, below the lumbar vertebrae, and between the ossa inno- minata. Q. How many foramina open upon the sur- face of the sacrum 1 A. There are four pair of holes on the an- terior part of the sacrum, and the same num- ber on its posterior part. Q. Where is the os uteri situated in the skeleton 1 A. There is no os uteri in the skeleton—os uteri means the mouth of the uterus, which is a fleshy viscus of the female pelvis. Q. How are the ribs divided 1 A. They are divided into seven true ribs, situated superiorly, and five false, which are placed inferiorly. Q. Into what parts is each rib distinguished ? A. Each rib is divided into middle part, or body, an anterior and posterior extremity, an external and internal surface, and a superior and inferior edge. Q. Do the anterior extremities of all the ribs reach the sternum ? A. No ; only those of the true ribs. Q. Where is the os hyoides situated ? 22 ANATOMY. A. It is situated at the root of the tongue, between it and the larynx. Q. How is the os hyoides divided 1 A. The os hyoides is divided into body, two cornua majora, and two cornua minora. Q. Describe the scapula. A. The scapula is a triangular bone, situated at the lateral and upper part of the back. It has three margins, three processes, the spine, the acromion and coracoid, three angles, and an articular cavity for the head of the os humeri. Q. What bone is fixed to the acromion scapulae 1 A. The clavicle, or collar-bone. Q. How many bones has the fore-arm ? A. Two ; the radius, and ulna. Q. Where is the ulna situated 1 A. When the hand is supine, it is situated at the inner part of the fore-arm, between the humerus and carpus. Q What is situated in the groove at the lower internal edge of each rib 1 A. The intercostal artery, vein, and nerve. Q. How many portions of bone does the sternum consist of? A. In the adult the sternum consists of three portions : a superior portion, which nearly re- sembles the ace of hearts; a middle portion, which is flat on each side, and larger below than above ; and an inferior portion, which has attached to it the ensiform cartilao-e. Q. How is the clavicle divided ? A. The clavicle is divided into a body; and ANATOMY. 23 an internal, or sternal, and.an external, or scapular, extremity. Q. On what bone do we lean when on our elbow 1 A. The ulna. Q. What is the process called on which we lean? A. The olecranon. Q. How many bones compose the shoulder- joint ? A. Two : the scapula and the os brachii. Q. What bone unites the arm to the thorax 1 A. The clavicle, or collar-bone. Q. How many bones compose the carpus 1 A. Eight; viz. os scaphoides, lunare, cunei- forme, pisiforme, trapezium, trapezoides, mag- num, and unciforme. Q. What receives the head of the os femoris ? A. The acetabulum, or cup-like cavity of the • os innominatum. Q. What ligament is attached to the bottom of the acetabulum 1 A. The ligamentum teres of the thigh-bone, which confines the head in its socket. Q. What bone supports the leg ? A. The astragalus, on which the tibia rests. Q. Which of the bones of. the leg is the outermost 1 A. The fibula, the lower extremity of which forms the outer ankle. Q. What is the situation of the os calcis ? A. The os calcis is placed at the posterior part of the tarsus, and forms the heel. 24 ANATOMY. Q. Where is the os scaphoides situated 1 A. Immediately before the astragalus. Q. What is the situation of the three cunei- form bones of the tarsus? A. The cuneiform bones are situated before the os scaphoides, and internal to the os cu- boides. Q. Where is the trochanter major situated ? A. It forms the great projection at the su- perior and external part of the thigh-bone. Q. On what bone is the linea aspera situat- ed ? A. On the back part of the os femoris. Q. What are the processes on the lower end of the os femoris called ? A. They are called condyles. Q. What is there particular to be noticed on the os humeri ? A. In noticing the os humeri, we may ob- serve its cylindrical shape, its body and two extremities, the head, neck, great and little tuberosity, the bicipital groove, the two con- dyles, and trochlea. Q. Enumerate the principal parts of the ulna. A. The principal parts of the ulna are, its body and extremities, the olecranon and coro- noid process, the great and little sigmoid cavity, the lesser head, and styloid process. Q. What are the principal parts of the ra- dius ? A. The principal parts of the radius are, its body and two extremities ; its round head, ANATOMY. 25 which rolls on the ulna ; the sigmoid cavity, at its lower extremity ; and the styloid process. Q. What are the principal parts of the os femoris ? A. The principal parts of the os femoris are, its body and extremities, the head, neck,»the great and little trochanters, the linea aspera, the external and internal condyle, the notch between the condyles, and fossa for the patella. Q. How many bones compose the knee- joint ? A. Three ; viz. the patella, the os femoris, and the tibia. Q. What are the bones of the leg called ? A. Tibia and fibula. Q. What is the shape of the tibia ? A. It is long and triangular; larger above than below. Q. What bone forms the inner ankle ? A. The inner ankle is formed of a projec- tion from the lower part of the tibia. Q. What bone forms the outer ankle ? A. The lower end of^the fibula forms it. Q. What are the names of the bones of the pelvis ? A. They are four in number; viz. the two ossa innominata, one os sacrum, and one os coccygis. Q. How would you distinguish a male from a female pelvis ? A. In the female pelvis, the os sacrum is shorter and broader than that of the male, the ossa ilia are more expanded, the brim of the 2 26 ANATOMY. pelvis is nearly of an oval shape, it is wider from side to side than from the symphysis pubis to the os sacrum ; whereas, in man, it is rounder, and everywhere of less diameter; the os sacrum is narrower, and the os coccygis more firmly connected. Q. Into how many portions is the os innomi- natum distinguished 1 A. Into three j the iliac, the pubic, and ischiatic portions, which, in the foetus, are three distinct bones, and become one in the adult. Q. What separates the ossa innominata from each other behind 1 A. The sacrum. Q. What are the terminations of the crista of the ilium called ? A. The terminations of the crista of the ilium are called, the anterior superior, and pos- terior superior, spinous processes of the ilium. Q. What is attached to the crista of the ilium ? A. The aponeurosis of the fascia lata, the latissimus dorsi, and obliquus externus abdo- minis, are attached to its external part, and posteriorly the gluteus maximus. Q. Describe the tibia. A. The tibia is situated on the inner side of the leg: it is divided into a body and an upper and lower extremity. The upper extremity is called the head, which has two articular sur- faces for the condyles of the os femoris. The body has three surfaces and three edges: the ANATOMY. 27 lower extremity is smaller than the upper, and forms the malleolus internus. Q. What is affixed to the apex of the pa- tella ? A. A ligament is attached to the apex of the patella, which is also affixed to the tube- rosity of the tibia. Q. Where is the spine of the tibia? put your finger on it. A. Here, on the anterior part. Q. Is there any bone between the ossa inno- minata anteriorly ? A. No : the pubic portion of each meets to form the pubes. Q. Where is the os coccygis situated ? A. At the lower part, or apex, of the os sacrum. Q. What is the name of the cavity that re- ceives the head of the os humeri 1 A. The glenoid cavity. Q. To what bone does the acetabulum be- long % A. It belongs to the os innominatum. Q. What bones form the hip-joint ? A. The head of the os femoris and the ace- tabulum of the os innominatum. Q. Where is the tuberosity of the ischium situated ? A. At the inferior part of the os *innomi- natum. Q. On what bone do we sit ? A. The os innominatum, on the tuberosity of the ischium. '28 ANATOMY. Q. Of what bone is the ascending ramus o the pubes a part ? A. It is a part of the os innominatum. Q. What bones form the thorax ? A. Twelve dorsal vertebras, the sternum, and twenty-four ribs ; in all, thirty-seven bones. Q. What is the use of the periosteum ? A. To allow an attachment for muscles, and to afford a bed for the ramification of vessels to nourish the bone. Q. How many kinds of cartilage are there ? A. There are four kinds of cartilage : 1st, Diarthrodial cartilages, which cover the ends of the bones ; 2d, Synarthrodial cartilages, which are placed between several bones, as that of the symphysis pubis ; 3d, Interarticular car- tilages, placed in some of the joints, as those in the knee-joint, &c. ; 4th, Those cartilages which supply the place of bone, as the car- tilages of the nose, ears, &c. Q. How many kinds of ligaments are there ? A. There are two kinds of ligaments ; viz, the connecting and capsular ligaments. Q. What are the ligaments of the lower jaw, and where are they situated ? A. The lower jaw is articulated by two liga- ments on each side, a capsular and lateral liga- ment : the capsular ligament is affixed around the articular surface of the temporal bone, and round the condyloid process of the lower jaw ; the lateral ligament passes fromxthe tubercle of the zygoma to the external surface of the neck of the lower jaw. ANATOMY. 29 Q. What are the ligaments about the shoul- der-joint ? A. The capsular ligament of the head of the os brachii; the triangular ligament, which ex- tends from the coracoid process to the acro- mion ; the conoid and trapezoid ligaments, that extend from the clavicle to the coracoid pro- cess. Q. What are the ligaments of the pelvis ? A. The long and short sacro-ischiatic liga- ments ; the obturator ligament; Poupart's lig- ament ; the transverse ligaments, going from the spinous processes of the ilium to the fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae; the annular liga- ment of the ossa pubis ; the ligamenfa vaga, which pass from the ilium to the sacrum ; and the lacertus ligamentosus, that runs from the last lumbar vertebra along the ridge of the os innominatum to the pubes ; besides these, there are the capsular and longitudinal ligaments of the sacrum and the os coccygis. Q. Where is Poupart's ligament ? A. Here; between the anterior superior spinous process of the ilium and the os pubis. Q. What is the name of the ligament that connects the os femoris to the bottom of the acetabulum ? A. The ligamentum teres. Q. What are the ligaments of the knee-joint ? A. The ligaments of the knee-joint are, the internal lateral, the long and short external lateral, the posterior ligament of Winslow, the ligament of the patella, the capsular ligament, 2* 30 ANATOMY. the two ligamenta alaria, the ligamentum mu- cosum, the anterior and posterior crucial, the transverse ligament of the interarticular car- tilages, and the ligaments which fix these car- tilages to the protuberance of the tibia. Q. What is the most elastic substance in the body ? A. The most elastic substance in the body is cartilage. Q. Are tendons elastic ? A. No; they are inelastic, otherwise the effect of the muscles would be greatly dimin- ished. Q. Where is the ligamentum nuchae situated ? A. The ligamentum nuchae arises from the occipital bone, runs down on the back part of the neck, adhering to the spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae, and giving origin to the trapezius and other muscles. Q. Describe the annular ligament of the wrist. A. The annular ligament of the wrist con- sists of two parts : 1st, The ligamentum carpi transversale externum, which passes from the styloid process of the ulna and os pisiforme, over the back of the wrist, to be affixed to the styloid process of the radius ; 2d, The liga- mentum carpi transversale internum, which passes across the fore part of the wrist; i6 arises from the os pisiforme and os unciforme, and is attached to the os scaphoides and os trapezium, on the outer edge. ANATOMY. 31 Q. What parts of the body are free from adipose structure ? A. The skin of the scrotum, penis, and eye- lids, has no adipose structure. Q. What are the bones of the tarsus ? A. The bones of the tarsus are seven in num- ber ; viz. the astragalus, os calcis, os sca- phoides, os cuboides, and the three cuneiform bones. Q. What muscles are attached to the cora- coid process of the scapula ? A. The coraco-brachialis, the pectoralis minor, and the short head of the biceps flexor cubiti. Q. Where is the diaphragm situated ? A. Between the thorax and abdomen, form- ing a vaulted arch or septum attached to the lower borders of the ribs. Q. What are the muscles of the abdomen ? A. The obliquus externus, obliquus inter- nus, transversalis abdominis, rectus abdominis, and pyramidalis, in pairs. Q. What is the name of the muscle which has three foramina in it ? A. The diaphragm. Q. How is the diaphragm divided ? A. The diaphragm is divided into the greater and less muscle. Q. Describe the origin and insertion of the two muscles of the diaphragm. A. The greater muscle of the diaphragm arises from all the cartilages of the false and of the last true rib, and is inserted into the cen- trum tendinosum ; the less muscle arises from 32 ANATOMY. eight slips from the second, third, and fourth lumbar vertebrae, which form two crura ; the muscle is then inserted into the centrum ten- dincteum opposite its fellow. Q. Where is the longest crus of the dia- phragm situated ? A. On the right side of the fore part of the loins. Q. What tendon passes through the capsular ligament of the shoulder-joint ? A. The long tendon of the biceps flexor cubiti. Q. How many muscles arise from the shoulder and are inserted into the fore-arm ? A. The muscles that are attached to the shoulder and fore-arm are two in number ; viz. biceps flexor cubiti, and the long head of the triceps. Q. How many muscles arise from the arm to be inserted into the fore-arm ? A. The muscles that arise from the arm and are inserted into the fore-arm are six in num- ber ; namely, the anconeus, the short heads of the triceps extensor cubiti, the brachialis inter- nus, supinator radii longus, supinator radii brevis, and pronator radii teres. Q. What muscles arise from the scapula and are inserted into the humerus ? A. The muscles which arise from the sca- pula and are inserted into the humerus are, the subscapularis, teres major, teres minor, supra- spinatus, infraspinatus, coracobrachialis, and the deltoides. ANATOMY. 33 Q. What tendon passes over the hamular process of the sphenoid bone ? A. The tendon of the tensor palati passes over the hook-like process, to be inserted into the soft plate. Q. What forms the sheath of the rectus abdominis ? A. The sheath of the rectus is formed by the tendons of three muscles, viz. the obliquus externus, the obliquus internus, and the trans- versalis. Q. What are the tendinous partitions called, which are sent betwixt muscles from the fascia covering them ? A. The partitions sent down from the fascia betwixt muscles are called intermuscular liga- ments ; they connect the muscles, and give origin to many of the fibres. Q. Where is the sphincter of the rectum situated ? A. At its extremity, which it surrounds. Q. What muscle is inserted into the os pisi- forme ? A. The muscle which is inserted into the os pisiforme is called flexor carpi ulnaris. Q. How many muscles are there that arise from the trunk, and are inserted into the sca- pula ? A. They are six in number; viz. trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, rhomboideus, serratus magnus, and subclavius. Q. Do the external condyles of the humerus 34 ANATOMY. give origin to the extensor or flexor muscles of the fore-arm ? A. To the extensors. Q. What forms the linea alba ? A. The meeting of the flat tendons of the abdominal muscles, from the ensiform cartilage to the symphysis pubis. Q. What muscles are divided in amputation of the thigh ? A. The muscles divided in amputation of the thigh are, the biceps flexor cruris, semi- tendinosus, semi-membranosus, gracilis, sar- torius, vastus externus, vastus internus, rectus femoris, and the long tendon of the abductor magnus. Q. What muscles are inserted into the pa- tella ? A. The rectus femoris, the vastus externus, the vastus internus, and cruraeus. Q. What are the names of the muscles which are inserted into the os calcis ? A. Gastrocnemius externus, gastrocnemius internus soleus, and plantaris. Q. What is the name of the tendon formed by the gastrocnemius externus, and soleus ? A. The tendo Achillis. Q. What muscle crosses the carotid artery and internal jugular vein ? A. These two vessels have the omo-hyoides crossing them, to insert itself into the os hyoides. Q. How many muscles are there on the anterior part of the neck ? ANATOMY. 35 A. The muscles on the anterior part of the neck are sixteen in number; viz. platysma myoides, sterno-cleidomastoideus, omo-hyoi- deus, sterno-hyoideus, sterno-thyroideus, thyro- hyoideus, crico-thyroideus, digastricus, stylo- hyoideus, stylo-glossus, stylo-pharyngeus,myo- hyoideus, genio-hyoideus, genio-hyo-glossus, hyo-glossus, and lingualis. Q. What forms the lineae transversa? of the abdomen ? A. The lineae transversae are formed by the tendinous adhesions of the recti muscles, which produce three or four white lines that shine through the fascia covering each muscle. Q. What forms the linea semilunaris ? A. The linea semilunaris is a semicircular white line which runs obliquely from the os pubis over the side of the abdomen, at the dis- tance of about four inches from the linea alba ; it is formed by the tendons of the two oblique and transverse muscles uniting at the rectus. Q. Is there any muscle which arises from one of the abdominal muscles and is inserted into the testicle ? A. Yes; the cremaster muscle arises from the internal oblique, passes through the abdomi- nal ring, and descending upon the spermatic cord, is inserted into the tunica vaginalis of the testis. Q. What are the most important fasciae of the body ? A. The fascia covering the temporal muscle : —that given off from the biceps covering the 36 ANATOMY. fore-arm :—that covering the abdominal mus- cles and back :—the fascia of the lower ex- tremities :—and the plantar and palmar fascia. Q. From whence does the palmar aponeuro- sis arise ? A. The palmar aponeurosis arises from the tendon of the palmaris, and from the annular ligament of the wrist. Q. What are bursae mucosae, and their use ? A. The bursae mucosae are small bags placed under muscles and tendons that are frequently brought into action ; they contain a fluid simi- lar to synovia, the use of which is to lubricate the muscles and tendons. Q. Where are bursae mucosae to be found ? A. The bursae mucosae are chiefly situated in the extremities, between tendons which rub against each other, or where they play on the surfaces of bones or joints, and between the in- teguments and certain prominent points of bone, as at the'knee, elbow, and knuckles. Q. From which side of the tendon of the biceps is an aponeurosis sent off? A. An aponeurosis is sent off from its inside, which assists in forming the fascia of the fore- arm. Q. Describe the fascia covering the fore-arm. A. The fascia covering the fore-arm is con- tinued from the intermuscular ligaments which pass down to the condyles, covering the os hu- meri. It is attached to the condyles, and ad- heres firmly to the olecranon. On the posterior part of the arm it receives a great addition of ANATOMY. 37 fibres from the triceps extensor, and on the fore part of the arm it appears to be a continua- tion of the aponeurosis of the biceps flexor cubiti. Q. What is the use of aponeuroses ? A. The use of aponeuroses is to brace the muscles, by keeping them in their proper place while in action, and to give origin to ~ many muscular fibres of the muscles which lie immediately under. Q. How many arteries are there ? A. Two : viz. the aorta and pulmonary ar- tery : all the other arteries are branches of these two. Q. What vessels nourish the heart ? A. The coronary arteries. Q. What arteries are given off from the arch of the aorta? A. Three branches; viz. the arteria innomi- _ nata, the left carotid, and the left subclavian. Q. What parts do the external and internal carotid artery supply ? A. The external carotid artery supplies the face and external parts of the head ; the inter- nal carotid artery supplies the brain. Q. What branches does the external carotid artery give off? A. The external carotid artery gives offeight branches; viz. 1. thyroidea superior; 2. lin- gualis ; 3. facialis ; 4. pharyngea inferior; 5. occipitalis; 6. auricularisposterior; 7. tempo- ralis ; and 8. maxillaris interna. 3 38 ANATOMY. Q. What are the branches of the internal carotid artery ? A. The internal carotid artery sends off the ophthalmic, the communicans, the anterior cerebri and the media cerebri. Q. What is the situation of the common carotid artery in the neck ? A. The common carotid artery lies on the side of the trachea, between it and the internal jugular vein. Q. What are the arteries of the dura mater ? A. The arteries of the dura mater are the anterior, middle, and posterior meningeal. Q. How many arteries has the thyroid gland ? A. The thyroid gland has four arteries, namely, the two superior thyroid, and the two inferior thyroid. Q. Through what foramen does the oph- thalmic artery enter the orbit ? A. The ophthalmic artery enters the orbit by the foramen opticum ; it sends its branches to the forehead, lachrymal gland, fat, muscles, and globe of the eye. Q. What is the course of the arteria trans- versal is faciei ? A. The transversalis faciei, which is a branch of the temporal, proceeds transversely under the zygoma, over the masseter, and near the parotid duct. Q. Describe the course of the internal caro- tid as it enters the cranium. A. The internal carotid, at the base of the ANATOMY. 39 cranium, makes a sudden turn forwards, and enters the carotid canal of the temporal bone ; it then passes upwards and forwards ; after leaving the canal, it again bends upwards and forwards by the side of the sella turcica, and perforates the dura mater at the root of the anterior clinoid process ; it is suddenly reflected obliquely backwards and upwards ; after which it divides into branches. Q. Where does the anterior meningeal artery arise ? A. The anterior meningeal artery arises from the carotid. Q. Where does the posterior meningeal ar- tery arise ? A. The posterior meningeal artery arises from the vertebral. Q. From whence does the middle menin- geal artery arise ? A. The middle meningeal artery arises from the internal maxillary artery. Q. What is the course of the external max- illary artery over the jaw-bone ? A. The external maxillary artery passes before the edge of the masseter over the mid- dle and lateral part of the jaw-bone. Q. What are the branches which the sub- clavian artery gives off ? A. They are six in number; viz. arteria mammaria interna, thyroidea inferior, intercos- talis, vertebralis, cervicalis, profunda, and cer- vicalis superficialis. Q. What are the muscles the subclavian 40 ANATOMY. artery passes between, in going over the first rib? A. The subclavian artery, as it passes over the first rib, goes between the scalenus aulicus and posticus. Q. Where does the subclavian artery ter- minate ? A. The subclavian artery terminates in the axillary artery at the lower border of the first rib. *-* Q. What are the branches of the internal maxillary artery ? A. The internal maxillary artery gives off the arteria meningea media, which goes to the dura mater through the foramen spinosum ; the inferior maxillary, which enters the canal of the lower jaw ; the alveolar, to the back teeth of the upper jaw; the infra-orbitar, which gets upon the cheek, through the infra-orbitar canal; the palato-maxillary, which ramifies on the palate ; and the spheno-palatine, to the cavity of the nose. Q. At what part is the brachial artery con- sidered to begin ? A. The brachial artery begins immediately below the tendon of the latissimus dorsi, and teres major. Q. From what artery does the inferior thyroid arise ? A. The inferior thyroid artery arises from the subclavian. Q. How many branches does the axillary artery send off? ANATOMY. 41 A. The axillary artery generally gives off seven; viz. thoracica acromialis, thoracica suprema, thoracica alaris, thoracica longa, ante- rior and posterior circumflex, and subscapulars. Q. What is the course of the brachial artery ? A. The brachial artery descends behind the inner edge of the biceps, over the coraco-bra- chialis, covered by the tendinous aponeurosis of the arm, and having the triceps extensor cubiti on the back part of it; when it gets to the bend of the arm it divides into two prin- cipal branches. Q. Between what tendons does the radial artery lie at the wrist ? A. The radial artery lies at the wrist, be- tween the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and supinator radii longus. Q. What is the course of the ulnar artery ? A. The ulnar artery, having passed under the flexors of the hand and fingers to the inner part of the fore-arm, along the outer side of the flexor carpi ulnaris, near the wrist, runs between the tendons of the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus ; it then passes over the annular ligament and under the palmar fascia, to form the superficial palmar arch. Q. What is the course of the radial artery ? A. The radial artery passes over the pro- nator teres, and takes the direction of the radius; when it gets to the wrist it gives off several branches, and then forms the arcus profundus. Q. At what distance from the elbow does the brachial artery divide ? 42 ANATOMY. A. At about an inch below the elbow the brachial artery generally divides into radial and ulnar. Q. What artery forms the superficial palmar arch ? A. The superficial palmar arch is chiefly formed by the ulnar artery. Q. What forms the deep palmar arch ? A. The deep palmar arch is chiefly formed by the radial artery. Q. What are the arteries given off from the thoracic aorta ? A. The thoracic aorta gives off the bronchial, the oesophageal, and the aortic intercostal arte- ries. Q. What vessels does the right pulmonary artery pass before it reaches the lungs ? A. The right pulmonary artery passes be- hind the aorta and superior cava. Q. What course does th« abdominal aorta take ? A. The aorta passes from the thorax into the abdomen between the crura of the dia- phragm ; as it descends on the fore part of the spine, it inclines a little to the left: it gives off branches in its way downwards, and bifur- cates on the fourth lumbar vertebra. Q. What is the course of the coronaria ven- triculi ? A. The coronaria ventriculi passes from the coeliac artery towards the left side ; it first attaches itself to the stomach near its left ex- tremity, and sends a branch round the cardia, ANATOMY. 43 named ramus coronaria? dexter. The trunk is then continued along the lesser curvature, to inosculate with the pylorica or coronaria sin- istra. Q. What are the branches of the abdominal aorta ? A. The abdominal aorta gives off the phre- nic, the cosliac, the superior mesenteric, the renal, the spermatic, the lumbar, and the mid- dle sacral. Q. What is the course of the arteria sple- nica? A. The arteria splenica, after having left the cceliac artery, passes under the stomach and along the upper border of the pancreas, and enters the concave surface of the spleen. Q. What does the cceliac artery supply ? A. The cceliac artery supplies the stomach, liver, and spleen. Q. What are the arteries of the stomach called ? A. Coronary: they are four in number; viz. the arteria coronaria, the gastro-epiploica dextra, the gastro-epiploica sinistra, and pylo- rica. The veins are called gastric. Q. Where is the ductus arteriosus situated in the foetus ■ A. It passes obliquely from the pulmonary artery to the aorta. Q. What are the branches of the superior mesenteric artery ? A. The superior mesenteric artery gives off, on the right side, three branches: the ilio- 44 ANATOMY. colica, the branches of which go to the caecum, and to a portion of the ileum ; the colica dex- tra, which supplies the right side of the colon ; and the colica media, which divides on the mesocolon, and sends one branch to the right side and another to the left, that inosculates with the branch from the inferior mesenteric artery; it also gives off the arteries of the small intestine. Q. What is the course of the hepatic artery? A. It runs from the cceliac artery in a direc- tion opposite to the splenic, towards the right side ; after giving off several branches, it di- vides into the right and left hepatic. The right is distributed to the right lobe of the liver, and to the gall-bladder. The left sup- plies the whole of the left lobe, the lobulus Spigelii, and part of the right lobe. Q. What are the branches of the pancreatic artery ? A. The pancreatica? parvae, which go to the pancreas ; the vasa brevia, which go to the great curvature of the stomach ; the gastro- epiploica sinistra, which runs along the great curvature of the stomach, inosculating with the gastro-epiploica dextra. Q. What are the branches of the hepatic artery ? A. The hepatic artery gives off the pylorica or coronaria dextra, which ramifies on the pylorus and lesser curvature of the stomach ; the gastro-epiploica dextra, which passes un- der the pylorus to reach the great curvature of ANATOMY. 45 the stomach: the pancreatico-duodenalis, which is often a branch of the gastro-epiploica, goes to the pancreas and duodenum. Q. What are the arteries called which sup- ply the kidneys,? A. The renal or emulgent arteries. Q. What is the course and distribution of the epigastric artery ? A. It arises from the external iliac artery, just as it is about to pass under Poupart's liga- ment ; it passes upwards and inwards at the upper and outer part of the abdominal ring, behind the spermatic cord, running along the edge of the transversus in an oblique manner towards the pyramidalis ; it then ascends under the middle of the rectus, furnishing branches to the abdominal parietes, and terminates above the umbilicus, anastomosing with the internal mammary. Q. What is the course of the femoral artery ? A. The femoral artery passes over the head of the os femoris down into a hollow at the up- per and inner part of the thigh, with the rectus and sartorius muscles upon the outside, and the adductor longus on the inner side ; it descends along the inside of the thigh between the vastus internus and triceps ; it then gradually bends backwards till it reaches the ham to become the popliteal. Q. What are the names of the valves at the origin of the aorta ? A. They are called the semilunar valves, and are three in number. 46 ANATOMY. Q. What are the branches of the inferior mesenteric artery ? A. The inferior mesenteric passes in the me- sentery to the left side of the abdomen, and gives off—1. The colica sinistra, which ascends along the left side of the colon, to inosculate with the colica media ; 2. Branches which pass to the sigmoid flexure of the colon; 3. The arteria haemorrhoidalis superior, which runs down behind the rectum, on which it ramifies. Q. How far distant from the aorta does the common iliac divide ? A. The common iliac artery divides in the adult at about two inches from their origin, the right being rather longer than the left. Q. Which is the largest branch of the inter- nal iliac ? A. The arteria glutea, which passes out of the pelvis at the upper part of the sciatic notch. Q. What is the distribution of the spermatic arteries ? A. The spermatic arteries in men pass through the abdominal ring to be distributed to the testes ; while in women they remain with- in the abdomen, and are dispersed upon the ovaria and uterus. Q. What are the branches of the internal iliac artery ? A. The internal iliac gives off the obturator, the gluteal, the ischiatic, and pudic. Q. How are the trunks of arteries nourish- ed? A. The arterial trunks are nourished by the ANATOMY. 47 vasa vasorum, which arise from the nearest small branches, and are everywhere dispersed on their surface. Q. What are the terminations of the arte- ries ? A. One termination is in veins—another in secreting extremities—a third in glands—a fourth in cells, as in the penis—and a fifth termination is in anastomoses. Q. What change do the collateral arteries undergo when a large arterial trunk is tied ? A. They dilate, their coats become stronger, and acquire additional capacity ; they are also found to become tortuous. Q. How are arteries distinguished from veins •' A. By their coats being whiter and more dense, and also more elastic. Their apertures gape, in the living body, and they pulsate. The arteries and veins of the lower extremity are very similar, in regard to the thickness of their coats ; the popliteal artery and vein both gape. Q. What is the course of the external jugu- lar vein on the neck ? A. The external jugular vein being formed by branches from the temple, side of the face, and throat, crosses obliquely over the sterno- mastoideus muscle, passes behind its outer edge, and goes beneath the clavicle to enter the sub- clavian vein. Q. On which side of the carotid artery does the internal jugular vein run ? 48 ANATOMY. A. The internal jugular vein runs on the outer side of the carotid artery. Q. Does the subclavian vein of the left side differ in any respects from that of the right ? A. Yes ; the left subclavian vein is much longer than the right, and passes across the fore part of the arteries arising from the arch of the aorta, to join the right subclavian be- hind the cartilage of the first rib. Q. Where are the venae magna? Galeni situated ? A. In the brain ; they receive the blood from the vascular plexus under the fornix, and convey it into the torcular of Herophilus. Q. How is the vena cava abdominalis form- ed, and what is its course ? A. The vena cava abdominalis is formed by the junction of the two common iliac veins : it passes up through the abdomen on the lum- bar vertebrae, and on the right side of the aorta. Q. Do the superficial veins of the fore-arm lie above the fascia or below it ? A. The principal veins of the fore-arm lie above the fascia. Q. What are the veins at the flexure of the arm? A. The cephalic, the median-cephalic, the basilic, and the median-basilic. Q. Have the veins of the dura mater any valves ? A. No, they have none. ANATOMY. 49 Q. Where is the torcular of Herophilus to be found ? A. The torcular of Herophilus is to be found at the junction* of the falx and the tentorium. Q. What are the sinuses of the dura mater ? A. The sinuses of the dura mater are, the cavernous, the circular, the superior and in- ferior petrosal, the occipital, the superior and in- ferior longitudinal, and the torcular Herophili. Q. How are the veins of the extremities divided ? A. The veins of the extremities are divided into deep-seated and superficial. Q,. What are the superficial veins of the lower extremity ? A. The superficial veins of the lower ex- tremity are the saphena major and saphena minor. Q. Where do the veins of the brain terminate ? A. The veins of the brain are but small, run chiefly between the convolutions, and termi- nate obliquely in the different sinuses. Q. Into which sinuses do all the smaller ones pour their blood ? A. All the other sinuses transmit their blood into the lateral sinuses. Q.. Have the deep-seated veins the same names as the arteries they accompany ? A. Yes ; for example, you have in the upper extremity one axillary vein, two brachial veins, two radial, two interosseal, and two ulnar veins. Q. What are the vessels which form the vena porta? ? 4 50 ANATOMY. A. The superior and inferior mesenteric, and the splenic veins. Q. On which side of the aorta is the longest emulgent artery situated 1 A. On the right, in consequence of the vena cava being placed on that side, and the artery having to pass behind that vessel. Q. What is the situation of the intercostal or great sympathetic nerve in the neck ? A. The intercostal nerve lies behind the carotid artery in the cellular membrane, betwixt that vessel and the muscles covering the ver- tebrae of the neck. Q. What is the situation of the par vagum in the neck ? A. On separating the internal jugular vein, and trunk of the carotid artery, the par vagum is seen lying in the same sheath of cellular substance with those vessels. Q. What nerve lies upon the belly of the anterior scalenus muscle ? A. The phrenic nerve lies upon the anterior scalenus muscle, and gets into the thorax be- twixt the subclavian artery and vein. Q. What nerve is that which is seen ascend- ing between the under surface of the trachea and oesophagus at the lower part of the neck ? A. The recurrent of the pneumogastric. Q. What nerves supply the diaphragm ? A. The phrenic or diaphragmatic nerves. Q. Where does the great sciatic nerve arise? A. From a plexus of nerves formed by the ANATOMY. 51 fourth and fifth lumbar nerves, joined by the first, second, and third sacral. Q. What is the name of the ganglion in the abdomen which supplies most of the abdomi- nal viscera ? A. The semilunar ganglion. Q. What does the foramen magnum occi- pitale transmit ? A. The spinal marrow with its membranes, the vertebral arteries, and the spinal accessory nerves. Q. What nerves form the great sympathetic 1 A. A branch of the sixth pair of nerves, with a recurrent twig of the second branch of the fifth pair of nerves. Q. Do the olfactory nerves supply the nose with the sense of feeling ? A. No, but branches from the fifth pair do. Q. From what part of the brain do the optic nerves arise ? A. They arise from the thalami nervorum opticorum. Q. From what part of the brain do the olfactory nerves arise 1 A. The olfactory nerves arise from the cor- pora striata. Q. What part of the brain gives origin to the third and fourth pair of nerves I A. The third pair of nerves arise from the crura cerebri, and the fourth pair from near the corpora quadrigemina. Q. Whence do the fifth and sixth pair of nerves arise ? 52 ANATOMY. A. The fifth pair of nerves arise from the sides of the pons Varolii, and the sixth from between the pons Varolii and corpora olivaria. Q. What do the seventh, eighth, and ninth pair of nerves arise from ? A. The seventh pair of nerves arise from the posterior and lateral part of the pons Varolii; the eighth pair arise from the corpora olivaria, and the ninth from the corpora pyramidalia. Q. What nerves pass through the foramen lacerum orbitale ? A. The third, the fourth, the first branch of the fifth and sixth pair of nerves. Q. Through what foramina do the fifth pair of nerves pass out of the cranium ? A. Through the foramen lacerum orbitale, foramen rotundum, and foramen ovale, in sepa- rate branches. Q. Does the arm receive nerves from the brain, or from the spinal marrow ? A. From the spinal marrow. Q. What are the branches of the fifth pair of nerves ? A. The branches of the fifth pair of nerves are the ophthalmic, the superior maxillary, and the inferior maxillary. Q. What nerve supplies the nose with the sense of smelling ? A. The olfactory, or first pair. Q. What is the first ganglion formed by the intercostal nerve called ? A. The superior cervical ganglion. Q. What forms the chorda tympani ? ANATOMY. 53 A. The chorda tympani is formed by the portio dura; it is a reflected twig of that nerve which passes between the long processes of the malleus and incus, and over the membrana tympani. Q. What are the nerves that form the len- ticular ganglion of the eye? A. The lenticular ganglion is formed by a branch from the third and fifth pair of nerves. Q. What nerve supplies the tongue for the sense of taste ? A. A branch of the fifth pair, termed the gus- tatory nerve. Q. What nerve perforates the sterno-cleido- mastoideus muscle ? A. The sterno-cleido-mastoideus is pierced about its middle, by the spinal accessory. Q. How is the axillary plexus formed ? A. The axillary plexus is formed of the four inferior cervical and first dorsal nerves. Q. Which is the largest nerve of the human body ? A. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve of the body. Q. What plexus of nerves surrounds the axillary artery ? A. The brachial plexus. Q. Describe the course of the great sciatic nerve out of the pelvis. A. This nerve is formed from the fourth and fifth lumbar, and three first sacral nerves ; it passes betwixt the pyriformis and gemellus 4* 54 ANATOMY. superior muscles, and escapes from the back part of the pelvis by the sciatic notch. Q. Describe the course of the anterior crural nerve while in the pelvis. A. The anterior crural nerve at its origin lies under the psoas magnus muscle, &c, and, as it descends, passes betwixt the psoas magnus and iliacus internus, till, having passed under Pou- part's ligament, it emerges from betwixt those muscles, and appears on the outside of the femoral artery. Q. What forms the anterior crural nerve ? A. The three or four superior lumbar nerves. Q. Describe the course of the obturator nerve and its origin. A. The obturator nerve is formed by branch- es of the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves ; it lies under the inner border of the psoas magnus, descends into the pelvis, and goes obliquely downwards, accompanying the obturator artery through the thyroid hole. Q. What forms the phrenic nerve ? A. The phrenic nerve is formed by the third and fourth cervical; it also receives a filament from the second. Q. Where is the external cutaneous nerve situated at the bend of the arm ? A. The external cutaneous nerve is situated at the bend of the arm, under the cephalic and the median cephalic veins. Q. What is the situation of the internal cu- taneous nerve at the bend of the arm ? A. The internal cutaneous nerve is situated ANATOMY. 55 under the median basilic vein : it frequently sends a small twig over the vein. Q. What is a gland ? A. A gland is an organic body composed of blood-vessels, nerves, and absorbents, and des- tined for the secretion of some peculiar fluid. Q. How are glands distinguished ? A. They are distinguished into four classes : simple glands—compounds of simple glands— conglobate glands—conglomerate glands. Q. Where are the mesenteric glands situat- ed ? A. In the fat between the layers of the mesentery, near the branches of the blood- vessels. Q. What vessels form the commencement ef the thoracic duct ? A. The lower extremity of the thoracic duct is formed by the junction of the trunks of the lymphatics of the right, and left inferior extremities, and of the lacteal vessels. Q. In what part of the spine does that union take place ? A. Generally on the anterior part of the third lumbar vertebra. Q. What is the name given to the absorb- ents entering a gland ? A. They are called vasa inferentia. Q. Absorbent vessels go out from the opposite side of the glands, in the manner they entered them : what name is given to those vessels ? A. They are called vasa efferentia. Q^ Where is the pituitary gland situated ? 56 ANATOMY. A. In the sella turcica, a cavity in the sphe-- aoid bone. Q. Where is the lachrymal gland situated ? A. In a depression of the orbitar process of the frontal bone within the orbit. Q. What are the salivary glands called ? A. They are the parotid gland, the sublin- gual gland, the sub-maxillary gland, thr glands of the cheek, the labial glands, and mo- lar glands. Q. Where does the excretory dust of thr parotid gland open 1 A. The excretory duct of the parotid gland,, or Steno's duct, passes obliquely over the out- side of the masseter muscle, and perforates tho cheek, opening near the second molas tooth of the upper maxilla. Q. What is the name of the excretory duct of the sub-maxillary gland, and where does it ©pen? A. The excretory duct of the sub-maxillary gland is called ductus Wartoni; it passes be- tween the genio-glossus and mylohyoideus muscles, and opens on the side of the fraenum lingua?. Q. Where is the thyroid body situated ? A. Upon the larynx and trachea lying upon the cricoid cartilage, and horns of the thyroid eartilage. Q. What are the glands called situated at the root of the lungs ? A. Bronchial glands; they are of a dark color. ANATOMY. 5? Q. Can you put your finger on the thymus gland ? A. No : the thymus gland is peculiar to the foetus, and disappears soon after birth. Q. Where is it situated ? A. In the anterior duplicature of the medi- astinum, under the superior part of the sternum. Q. What is the use of the thymus gland ? A. It is not known. Q. How are the absorbents divided ? A. The absorbents are divided into lympha- tic and lacteal vessels. Q. Do absorbents exist in every part of the body ? A. Yes: it is supposed that absorbents ex- ist in every part of the body ; but they have not yet been observed in the cavity of the cra- nium, nor in the placenta. Q. Where is the prostate gland situated ? A. It lies directly behind the symphysis pubis; it embraces the neck of the bladder, and rests upon the rectum. Q. Where is its situation in women ? A. Women have no prostate gland: it is an appendage of the penis. Q. Where are Cowper's glands to be found ? A. Cowper's glands are situated near the bulb of the urethra, before the prostate gland. Q. What are the contents of the cranium ? A. The cranium contains the cerebrum, ce- rebellum, and medulla oblongata;—the dura mater, the pia mater, and tunica arachnoidea;— oine pair of nerves, and the accessory nerves 58 ANATOMY. of Willis ;—several sinuses—the arteries that nourish the brain and its membranes, and the veins that return the blood into the sinuses; and also absorbent vessels. Q. What is the line called that runs along the centre of the corpus callosum ? A. The line in the centre of the corpus cal- losum is called raphe. Q. Where is the fornix of the brain situated ? A. The fornix is situated immediately under the septum lucidum. Q. How do the posterior crura of the fornix terminate ? A. The posterior crura of the fornix termi- nate by forming the corpora firnbriata. Q. What forms the lyra ? A. The lyra is formed by the medullary lines of the inferior surface of the fornix. Q. Where is the hippocampus minor situat- ed* A. The hippocampus minor is situated in the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle. Q. Where is the hippocampus major situ- ated ? A. The hippocampus major is situated in the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle. Q. Where is the third ventricle situated ?■ A. The third ventricle is a space betweeD the two thalami nervorum opticorum. Q. Where is the commissura mollis situated ? A. The commissura mollis is a short cord of soft substance, situated at the middle and an- ANATOMY. 59 Verier part, on the inner sides of trie thalami "nervorum opticorum. Q. Has the cerebellum convolutions ? A. No: there are on its surface deep sulci or grooves. Q. At what part of the cerebellum are the appendices vermiformes to be found? A. The appendices vermiformes are to be found at the anterior superior part, and the in- ferior part of the cerebellum. Q. How many membranes has the brain ? A. Three ; viz. the dura mater, the pia ma- ter, and the tunica arachnoidea, Q. What vessel runs in the falciform process of the dura mater? A. The superior longitudinal sinus is the principal vessel. Q. What vessels empty themselves into the longitudinal sinus of the dura mater ? A. The veins of the upper part of the pia mater. Q. Where is the tentorium situated % A. Between the cerebrum and cerebellum. Q. How many lobes has the brain ? A. Six; viz. two anterior, two posterior, and two middle or inferior lobes. Q. How many hemispheres has the cere- brum? A. Two ; viz. the right and the left. Q. What are the cavities in the brain called ? A. They are called ventricles. Q. What separates the lateral ventricles from each other % 60 ANATOMY. A. The septum lucidum. Q. From what part of the brain does the pineal gland arise ? A. From the thalamus nervi optici on each side by peduncles. Q. What separates the thalamus nervi optici from the corpus striatum ? A. A white prominent line, called taenia semicircularis. Q. What are the processes of the dura mater called ? A. They are three in number, and are called the falx cerebri, the tentorium, and the falx cerebelli. Q. How many laminae has the dura mater ? A. The dura mater has two laminae. Q. What parts of the brain does the falx separate ? A. The falx separates the two hemispheres. Q. What does the tentorium separate ? A. The tentorium separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum. Q. How are the sinuses of the dura mater formed ? A. The sinuses of the dura mater are formed by the separation of the two layers of that membrane. Q. Does the pia mater dip between the con- volutions of the brain, or pass over them ? A. The pia mater dips between the convolu- tions ; but the tunica arachnoidea passes over them. ANATOMY. 61 Q. What membrane nourishes the internal table of the skull ? A. The external lamina of the dura mater nourishes the internal table of the skull. Q. How is the pia mater nourished ? A. The pia mater is nourished by arteries from the brain. Q. Where are the tubercula quadrigemina situated ? A. The tubercula quadrigemina are situated behind the thalami nervorum opticorum, and under the pineal gland. Q. What canal passes under the tubercula quadrigemina ? A. The canal is called iter a tertio ad quar- tum ventriculum ; it forms the communication between the third and fourth ventricle. Q. What is situated at the anterior part of the third ventricle ? A. At the anterior part of the third ventri- cle are situated the anterior crura of the fornix, the commissura anterior cerebri, and infundi- bulum. Q. What forms the floor of the third ven- tricle ? A. The commissura inferior. Q. Where is the valvula magna cerebri situated ? A. The valvula magna cerebri is situated over the iter a tertio ad quartum ventriculum, and the upper part of the fourth ventricle. Q. There are three substances in the brain, the cineritious or cortical, the medullary, and 62 ANATOMY. the substantia nigra. Where is the substantia nigra to be found ? A. In the crura of the cerebrum. Q. What forms the arbor vita? ? A. It is formed by the medullary and cineri- tious substance of the brain, which are dis- tributed in such a manner as to give the appear- ance of the branches of a shrub. Q. What are the medullary tracts at the sides of the valvula magna cerebri called ? A. These lines are called processus ad testes, or columna? valvula? Vieussenii. Q. Where is the calamus scriptorius situated ? A. The calamus scriptorius is situated in the fourth ventricle. Q. What is to be observed on the medulla oblongata ? A. On the medulla oblongata are seen the pons Varolii, the corpora olivaria, and corpora pyramidalia. Q. What is the use of the ventricles of the brain ? A. It is not known. Q. Do these cavities contain any fluid in health ? A. No: no more than the cavity of the pericardium and other circumscribed cavities. Q. Describe the eye. A. The eye is divided into external and in- ternal parts. The external parts are the super- cilia, the palpebrse, the ciliae, lachrymal gland, lachrymal caruncle, nasal duct and muscles of the bulb, and the tunica conjunctiva. The ANATOMY. 63 internal parts are the sclerotic coat, the cornea, the choroid coat, iris, uvea, retina, hyaloid membrane, capsule of the lens and vitreous humors, three humors and two chambers. Q. How many coats has the eye ? A. Three; viz. the tunica sclerotica, the tunica choroides, and the retina :—the anterior portion of the sclerotica is transparent, and called the cornea transparens: the anterior part of the choroid membrane forms the iris and the uvea ; and there is, also, the membrane of the lens and of the vitreous humor: so that many anatomists make eight coats. Q. What is the tunica conjunctiva ? A. The tunica conjunctiva is a reflexion of the inner membrane of the eyelid, over the surface of the eye ; it prevents extraneous bodies passing deep into the socket. Q. Which is the most dense coat of the eye ? A. The tunica sclerotica. Q. What is the structure of the cornea ? A. The cornea is divisible into several lamel- la;, between which a transparent fluid is noticed. Q. What is the most vascular coat of the eye ? A. The tunica choroides is the most vascu- lar coat of the eye : the ciliary arteries ramify copiously on it, and the veins are numerous and contorted. Q. What separates the anterior from the posterior chamber ? A. The curtain formed by the iris and uvea. 64 ANATOMY. Q. What is contained in the capsule of the crystalline lens ? >aj A. The crystalline lens and a little water. Q. What artery nourishes the crystalline lens? A. The arteria centralis retina?. Q. Where is the pigmentum nigrum of the eye situated ? A. Upon the uvea, behind the iris, and upon the surface of the tunica choroidea. Q. Where are the puncta lachrymalia situ- ated ? A. Near the internal canthus of the eye, one in each eyelid. Q. Where is the lachrymal sac situated ? A. In the superior part of the lachrymal groove, or the commencement of the ductus ad nasum behind the tendon of the orbicularis. Q. What part of the eye is the true organ of vision 1 A. The retina. Q. What secretes the pigmentum nigrum of the choroid membrane ? A. The pigmentum nigrum of the choroid membrane is secreted by the arteries of that membrane. Q. How many chambers has the eye ? A. Two: an anterior and a posterior cham- ber. Q. What gives the whitish blue color to the bulb of the eye ? A. The whitish blue color of the bulb of the eye is occasioned by the expanding tendons ANATOMY. 65 of the muscles shining through the transparent tunica conjunctiva. Q. Where are the vasa vorticosa situated ? A. The vasa vorticosa are situated on the choroid coat of the. eye; they are formed by a contortion of the veins of that membrane. Q. What bones form the lachrymal groove or ductus ad nasum, and where does it termi- nate ? A. The lachrymal bone, the superior max- illary bone, and the inferior spongy bone. It terminates at the lower and lateral parts of the nose, at the inner and fore part of the antrum maxillare, under the os spongiosum inferius, in a straight line with the second dens molaris. Q. What is the division of the external ear ? A. The external ear is divided into the pinna, lobus, and meatus auditorius. Q. What are the eminences of the external ear? A. There are four eminences of the external ear ; viz. the helix, antihelix, tragus, and anti- tragus. Q. Have the depressions on the external ear any names ? A. Yes: they are distinguished into the fossa navicularis, the fossa innominata, and the concha. Q. What is the general division of the in- ternal ear? A. The internal ear is divided into the coch- lea, vestibule, and semicircular canals. Q. Where does the Eustachian tube begin ? 5* 66 ANATOMY. A. The Eustachian tube begins at the upper and fore part of the tympanum. Q. What membrane lines the meatus audi- torius externus ? A. The meatus is lined by a continuation of the skin. Q. If a probe were passed to the bottom of the meatus auditorius, what would it rest on ? A. The membrana tympani. Q. Where is the fenestra ovalis situated ? A. The fenestra ovalis is situated in the tym- panum, above the promontory. Q. Where do the cells of the mastoid pro- cess open ? A. They open at the upper and back part of the tympanum. Q. Where does the fenestra rotunda lead to ? A. The fenestra rotunda leads to the cochlea. Q. How many openings are there in the vestibulum ? A. Five foramina, which communicate with the semicircular canals ;—the fenestra ovalis, and a round hole which communicates with one of the canals of the cochlea. Q. What are the principal parts of the coch- lea? A. The principal parts of the cochlea are, the gyri, the modiolus, the infundibulum, the scala vestibuli, and the scala tympani. Q. How are the semicircular canals distin- guished ? A. The semicircular canals are three in num- ber : they are distinguished into the superior ANATOMY. 67 or vertical, the posterior or oblique, and the exterior or horizontal. Q. How is the palate divided ? A. It is divided into hard and soft. Q. What forms the first arch of the palate ? A. The constrictor isthmi faucium, covered by the mucous membrane of the mouth. Q. What are the papillae minima? and papilla? mediae of the tongue formed by ? A. The papilla? minima? and media? are form- ed by the extremities of nerves surrounded by a lace-work of blood-vessels. Q. What forms the second arch of the pa- late ? A. The palato-pharyngeus, covered by the skin of the mouth. Q. What lies between the two arches of the palate ? A. The tonsil. Q. How many fangs has an incisor tooth ? A. One. ' Q. What does the uvula consist of? A. The uvula consists of the azygos uvulae, enveloped in the membrane of the palate. Q. Where is the pharynx, and what is it ? A. The pharynx is a large muscular bag in form of an irregular funnel, at the back of the mouth, which terminates in the oesophagus. Q. What forms the inner membrane of the pharynx ? A. The inner membrane of the pharynx is formed by the continuation of the membrane of the mouth 68 ANATOMY. Q. What glands secrete the saliva ? A. The saliva is secreted chiefly by the pa- rotid, the sub-maxillary, and the sublingual glands. Q. How is the tongue divided ? A. The tongue is divided into a basis and apex, a superior and inferior surface, and two edges. Q. What muscles are attached to the tongue? A. Four ; part of the genio-hyo-glossus, the hyo-glossus, lingualis, and stylo-glossus. , Q. How many cartilages has the larynx ? A. The larynx has five cartilages ; viz. the thyroid, the cricoid, the two arytaenoid, and the cartilage of the epiglottis. Q. Where is the xiphoid or ensiform carti- lage? A. Here, at the pit of the stomach. Q. What are the viscera of the thorax ? A. The pleurae, the lungs, the thymus gland in children, the oesophagus, the ductus thoracicus, the arch of the aorta, branches of the vena? cava?, the vena azygos, the pericar- dium, the heart, the phrenic nerve, the par vagum, and the great intercostal nerves. Q. How many lobes has the left lung ? A. It has two lobes. Q. How many lobes has the right lung ? A. The right lung has three lobes. Q. Do the lungs in their natural condition fill the cavities of the thorax ? A. Yes ; they are in contact with the sur- rounding parts, and completely fill the thorax. ANATOMY. 69 Q. What do the bronchi terminate in ? A. The bronchi become membranous tubes which terminate in the air-cells. Q. What separates the two cavities of the chest ? A. The mediastinum, which is formed by the pleura. Q. What are contained in the posterior mediastinum ? A. The oesophagus, the bronchi, the large vessels of the heart, the par vagum, great in- tercostals, and the thoracic duct. Q. What is there in the anterior mediastinum of children that disappears towards adult age ? A. The thymus gland. Q. How many membranes has the pericar- dium ? A. The pericardium has two membranes; an external and an internal. Q. What part of the thorax does the peri- cardium adhere most to ? A. The pericardium adheres most firmly to the tendinous part of the diaphragm. Q. What arteries nourish the pleura ? A. The arteries that nourish the pleura are branches from the intercostal, mammary, dia- phragmatic, bronchia], and oesophageal arteries. Q. What is the heart ? A. The heart is a hollow muscular viscus, situated in the pericardium, in the cavity of the thorax, resting upon the diaphragm. Q. Has the external surface of the heart any membranous covering ? 70 ANATOMY. A. Yes ; it has a membranous coat, which is a reflexion of the inner layer of the pericar- dium. Q. Where are the musculi pectinati situated ? A. In the right auricle of the heart. Q. Where is the tricuspid valve situated ? A. The tricuspid valve is situated between the right auricle and right ventricle, hanging from the opening between them. Q. Where does the pulmonary artery origi- nate ? A. The pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle. Q. Do the auricles of the heart communicate before birth ? A. Yes: by the foramen ovale. Q. Where is the Eustachian valve situated ? A. At the entrance of the inferior cava, within the right auricle of the heart. Q. How many openings has the right auri- cle of the heart ? A. Four; viz. the opening of the vena cava superior, that of the vena cava inferior, that of the coronary vein, and the right auriculo-ventri- cular orifice. Q. What is the valve of Eustachius formed by? A. The Eustachian valve is formed by a fold of the inner membrane of the right auricle. Q. How many openings has the left auricle of the heart ? A. Five ; viz. those of the four pulmonary vessels and the left auriculo-ventricular orifice. ANATOMY. 71 Q. What are the differences between the foetal and adult heart ? A. In the fcetal heart, an opening exists between the auricles in the septum auricularum, called the foramen ovale ; this is closed in the adult heart. An artery also passes from the pulmonary artery obliquely to the ascending aorta in the foetus, which is called ductus arte- riosus : this becomes a ligament in the adult. Q. What are the regions of the abdomen ? A. The abdomen is divided into three regions, each of which is subdivided :—1. The epigas- tric region, which is the superior : its sides are termed hypochondriac regions.—2. The um- bilical region, situated in the centre of the ab- domen, the sides of which are termed lumbar regions.—3. The hypogastric region, which is subdivided into three regions, one middle, termed regio pubis, and two lateral, named iliac fossa?. Q. What viscera are contained in the ab- domen ? A. The omentum, the stomach, the large and small intestines, the liver and gall-bladder, the mesentery, the lacteal vessels, the thoracic duct, the spleen, the pancreas, the kidneys and suprarenal capsules, part of the aorta descen- dens, and vena cava ascendens and the abdomi- nal nerves. Q. What is the membrane called, that lines the cavity and covers the viscera of the abdo- men? A. The peritoneum. Q. What are the four ligamentous cords seen 72 ANATOMY. upon the outside of the peritoneum at its an- terior and inferior part ? A. They are the remains of parts peculiar to the foetus ; viz. the two umbilical arteries, the umbilical vein, and the urachus. Q. What forms the mesentery ? A. The mesentery is formed by a doubling of the peritoneum. Q. Where does the mesentery begin ? A. The mesentery begins at the termination of the duodenum. Q. How is the colon fixed to the spine ? A. The colon is fixed to the spine by a con- tinuation of the mesentery, which is called mesocolon. Q. Which is the largest viscus of the abdo- men? A. The liver. Q. Describe the liver. A. The liver is the largest abdominal viscus, placed in the right hypochondriac region, and partly in the epigastric region. It is distin- guished into five lobes, is suspended by five ligaments, and is composed of arteries, veins, nerves, absorbents, excretory ducts, and cellu- lar membrane, and is covered by the perito- neum. Q. Are the kidneys completely enveloped in the peritoneum ? A. No : they are covered by it on their an- terior surface only. Q. Where is the great lobe of the liver situ- ated ? ANATOMY. 73 A. The great lobe of the liver is situated in the right hypochondriac region, where it occu- pies a considerable space between the pylorus and ribs and right kidney, on which it lies. Q. Where is the small lobe of the liver situated ? A. The small lobe of the liver is situated in the epigastric region, only a small portion of it lying in the left hypochondriac region. Q. What are the vessels surrounded by the capsule of Glisson ? A. The vessels surrounded by the capsule of Glisson are the vena porta?, the hepatic artery, the excretory ducts, and some absorbents. Q. What forms the capsule of Glisson ? A. A reflexion of the peritoneum, which, with a quantity of cellular substance, surrounds the vessels and nerves of the liver just before they enter that viscus. Q. What are the ligaments of the liver ? A. The ligaments of the liver are, the broad ligament, the right and left lateral ligaments, the coronary ligament and the round ligament. Q. What artery nourishes the liver ? A. The hepatic artery, which is a branch of the cceliac. Q. What are the depressions of the liver ? A. The depressions are :—1. The great fis- sure :—2. a fissure for the vena porta? :—3. one for the vena? cava? :—4. a furrow between the left lobe and lobulus Spigelii for the ductus ve- nosus in the foetus:—5. a depression for the gall bladder:—6. a superficial cavity caused by the 74 ANATOMY. stomach:—and 7. a great sinus for the spine and oesophagus at the posterior part'of the left lobe. Q. What is the use of the liver ? A. To secrete bile. Q. What are the excretory ducts of the liv- er called ?." A. Pori biliarii. Q. Describe the common duct formed by the junction of the hepatic and cystic ducts. A. It is called ductus communis choledochus, of the size of a goose-quill; it descends under the head of the pancreas, to the back part of the duodenum, which it enters about five inches from the pylorus. Q. Where is the gall-bladder situated ? A. The gall-bladder is situated in the right hypochondrium, attached to a depression in the right lobe of the liver. Q. How many coats has the gall-bladder ? A. The gall-bladder has three coats ; viz. an external or peritoneal, a middle or muscular, and an internal or villous coat. Q. What is the appearance of the internal surface of the gall-bladder ? A. The internal surface of the gall-blad- der is smooth and of a green color, and appears everywhere perforated by the ducts of small follicles, which afford a mucus to defend the inner coat. Q. Of what kind of structure is the outer surface of the peritoneum ? A. The outer surface of the peritoneum is cellular. ANATOMY. 75 Q. What is the extent of the peritoneum covering the urinary bladder ? A. The peritoneal coat extends over the fundus, sides, and back part, to near the termi- nation of the ureters. Q. Where is the spleen situated ? A. It is situated in the left hypochondrium, near the fundus of the stomach, under the ribs. Q. What is the name of the excretory duct of the spleen ? A. No duct excretory has yet been found in the spleen. Q. What nerves supply the spleen ? A. The nerves of the spleen are branches of the great sympathetic and eighth pair. Q,. Where is the pancreas situated ? A. The pancreas extends from the fissure of the spleen across the spine, under the posterior surface of the stomach, and terminates at the duodenum. Q. What arteries nourish the pancreas ? A. The arteries which nourish the pancreas are derived from the pylorica, duodenalis, and splenica. Q. What is the elongation or process sent down from the right extremity of the pancreas called ? A. This process was called by Winslow, pancreas minus: it is also called head of the pancreas. Q. Where is the pancreatic duct situated ? A. The pancreatic duct begins near the left extremity of the pancreas; it runs in the sub- 76 ANATOMY. stance of the gland, and terminates obliquely in the duodenum, along with the ductus commu- nis choledochus. Q. What are the supra-renal capsules ? A. The supra-renal capsules are flat bodies of a dark yellow color; they rest upon the kidneys ; they contain a dark-colored fluid, and are larger in the foetus than in the adult. Q. What is the use of the capsules, as they are called ? A. It is not known. Q. What difference in situation is there be- tween the right and left kidney ? A. The right kidney is much lower than the left, occasioned by the liver occupying so much space. Q. What is the excretory duct of the kidney called ? A. The ureter. Q. How many coats compose the ureter ? A. Three : an external, consisting of a com- pact filamentary substance; the middle one, of several fibres ; and the internal one, of the mucous kind. Q. What does the substance of the kidney consist of? A. The substance of the kidney consists of an outer part called cortical, and an inner, termed medullary. Q. What viscera are in contact with the right kidney? A. The right kidney lies under the liver, and is very near to the duodenum. ANATOMY. 77 Q. Is the cortical substance endowed with any peculiar function ? A. Yes : that of secreting the urine. Q. What forms the papilla? of the kidney ? A. The termination of the medullary sub- stance with the urinii'erous tubes. Q. What is the name of the duct leading from the pelvis of the kidney to the bladder ? A. The ureter. Q. Into what parts is the alimentary canal divided ? A. Into the pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ilium, caput caecum coli, colon, and rectum. Q. What muscles are concerned in the movements of the pharynx ? A. Four on each side ; the stylo-pharyn- geus, the constrictor pharyngis inferior, rae- dius, and superior. Q. Describe the stomach. ' A. The stomach is a membranous recepta- cle, placed in the left hypochondriac region, composed of three membranes. It has a supe- rior orifice called cardia, and an inferior orifice called pylorus ; a lesser and greater curvature, and two surfaces distinguished into anterior and posterior. Q. Where do the veins of the stomach go ? A. They empty themselves into the vena porta?. u Q. What are the arteries of the stomach ? A. The arteries of the stomach are derived from the caeliac; they consist of the coronaria, 6* 78 ANATOMY. the gastrica sinistra, the gastrica dextra, and the pylorica. Q. What viscera are attached to the great curvature of the stomach ? A. The large omentum, the spleen, and transverse arch of the colon. Q. What is the proper juice of the stomach called ? A. The gastric juice. Q. What is the beginning of the colon called ? A. The commencement of the colon is call- ed caput coli. Q. How would you distinguish the small from the large intestines ? A. The large intestines have three longitu- dinal bands, running on their surface ; they are lobulated, and have the portions of fat adher- ing to them, called appendicula? epiploicae ; which circumstances are not noticed in the small intestines. There are the valvulae con- niventes in the small intestines, which do not exist in the large. Q. Which is the broadest of the small intes- tines ? A. The duodenum is the broadest of the small intestines. Q. How are the mucous glands of the intes- tines distinguished ? A. The mucous glands of the intestines are distinguished into solitary and congregate, and from their describers glandula? Peyeri and glan- dulae Brunneri. ANATOMY. 79 Q. What are the ducts that enter the duo- denum ? A. The ductus communis choledochus, and the ductus pancreaticus. Q. By what means does the cavity of the omentum communicate with that of the abdo- men ? A. A communication is formed under the capsule of Glisson by means of the foramen of Winslow. Q. In what intestines are the valvula? con- niventes found ? A. In the small, chiefly in the duodenum and jejunum. Q. Describe the situation and course of the colon. A. The colon ascends on the right side to the liver ; passes under the liver and stomach to the left side, where it descends, by a sig- moid flexure, into the pelvis, and ends in the rectum. Q. Where do the mouths of the lacteals open ? A. Upon the internal surface of the small intestines. Q. Where does the mesentery begin ? A. Near the termination of the duodenum. Q. How does the rectum differ from the colon ? A. The rectum differs from the colon in be- ing covered only anteriorly and laterally by the peritonaeum; its muscular fibres are stronger 80 ANATOMY. and thicker, and spread uniformly over the in- testine. Q. On what bone does the end of the rectum rest? A. On the os coccygis. Q. What is the membranous production call- ed by which the rectum is tied to the sacrum and os coccygis. A. The mesorectum. Q. Describe the uterus. A. The uterus is a spongy hollow receptacle, of a pear shape, placed in the pelvis between the urinary bladder and rectum, divided into fundus, cervix, and orifice or os tinea?: it has four ligaments, two Fallopian tubes, two ovaria, and the vagina hanging from its cervix. Q. Of what do the ligamenta lata uteri con- sist ? A. The ligamenta lata consist of two mem- branous productions or doublings of the peri- tonaeum, which go from the sides of the uterus and vagina, to be affixed to the sides of the pelvis. Q. What are the ligamenta rotunda uteri 1 A. They are cords composed of vessels and ligamentous fibres, arising from the sides of the uterus. Q. Through what tube does the ovum pass from the ovarium into the uterus ? A. Through the Fallopian tube. Q. Where is the os tincae situated ? A. The os tinea?, or mouth of the womb, is ANATOMY. 81 Situated at the top of the vagina and inferior part of the uterus. Q. What part of the vagina is covered by the peritonaeum ? A. The upper and posterior part. Q. What is the length of the urethra in females ? A. The urethra in females is about an inch in length. Q. Where is the female urethra situated ? A. The female urethra is situated under the syniphysis of the pubes, between the nympha? and below the clitoris, just above the entrance of the vagina. Q. Where is the urinary bladder situated ? A. The bladder is situated within the pelvis, immediately behind the ossa pubis ; in males before the rectum, and in females between the uterus and pubes. Q. On which side of the vesiculae seminales do the ureters enter into the bladder ? A. The ureters perforate the bladder on the outside of the vesiculae seminales. Q. What muscles does the ureter pass over in going to the bladder ? A. The ureter descends from the kidney over the psoae muscles. Q. Where is the epididymis situated ? A The epididymis is situated at the outer and back part of the testicle. Q. How many dilations are there in the urethra ? A. There are generally three dilations to be 82 ANATOMY. found in the urethra of men ; one at the point of the glans penis, another at the bulb of the urethra, and the third in the prostate gland. Q. To what do the openings of the veru- montanum belong ? A. The orifices found on the verumontanum belong to the vesiculae seminales. Q. Where is the urethra most dilated in males ? A. The urethra is most dilated at that part which is surrounded by the prostate gland. Q. What forms the corpus pampiniforme ? A. The corpus pampiniforme is formed by a plexus of veins that have a distant resemblance to the shoots of the vine. Q. What forms the coni vasculosi ? A The coni vasculosi are formed by the vasa efferentia becoming convoluted into ^conical bundles. Q. What does the corpus spongiosum ure- thra? consist of? A. The corpus spongiosum urethra? consists of a plexus of veins ; it is expanded at its anterior part to form the glans penis. Q. Describe the situation and course of the corpora cavernosa penis. A. The corpora cavernosa arise by what are called the crura from the tubera ischii: they ascend along the ischium and pubes, and are united immediately before the cartilaginous arch of the pubes : they are covered by a ligamento- tendinous substance, which is very elastic : in- ternally they are cavernous, and are separated ANATOMY. 83 from each other by the septum pectiniforme, so called from its numerous perforations. Q. Where are the testicles situated in the foetus ? A. The testicles in the foetus before the sixth month are in the abdomen ; they receive a covering of peritoneum, and are placed at the lower part of the kidneys. Q. How many coats has the testicle ? A. It has two coats; viz. the tunica vagi- nalis and the tunica albuginea. Q. Is there any difference in the manner in which the two coats surround the testicle ? A. Yes: the tunica vaginalis invests the tes- ticle as the pericardium does the heart, adher- ing only at its posterior and superior part; while the tunica albuginea surrounds and is firmly attached to the testicle on every part. Q. What is the excretory duct of the testi- cle called? A. The excretory duct of the testicle is called vas deferens. Q. Where do the corpora cavernosa penis arise ? A. The corpora cavernosa penis arise from the edge of the ramus of the ischium and os pubis. Q. What forms the scrotum ? A. The scrotum is formed by a continuation of the common integuments. Q. What forms the common integuments ? A. The common integuments are formed by 84 ANATOMY. the cuticle, rete mucosum, cutis, and adipose substance. Q. What is the use of the cartilages of the surfaces of joints ? A. The uses t)f the articular cartilages are to give the bones a smoothness for easy motion, to assist motion by their elasticity, and to guard against the effects of concussion. Q. What is the most elastic substance in the body? A. The most elastic substance in the body is cartilage. Q. Are tendons elastic ? A. Tendons are not elastic ; for, if they were, the power of muscles would be greatly dimi- nished. Q. What is the use of the adeps ? A. The adeps guards against the effects of pressure: it lessens the specific gravity of the body, fills up the interstices of muscles, and is a reservoir for nourishment to the body. Q. When blood is drawn from a vein and is at rest, what change takes place ? A. It separates into serum and crassamen- turn. PHYSIOLOGY. Q. What is the course of the circulation ? A. The blood is received from the arteries by the veins, and is returned by the superior and inferior cava to the right auricle of the heart, which, becoming distended, contracts and empties its blood into the right ventricle. The right ventricle then contracts and propels the blood through the pulmonary artery into the lungs, there to undergo a peculiar change, and to be conveyed by the four pulmonary veins into the left auricle. The left auricle being distended, evacuates its blood into the left ventricle. The left ventricle propels the blood through the aorta, to be circulated by the arteries, and again to be returned by the veins to the heart. Q. What is the use of the tuberculum Loweri ? A. The use of the tuberculum Loweri is supposed to be that of preventing the blood of the one cava from rushing upon that of the other, and to direct it into the auricle. Q. How is the blood prevented from return- ing back into the right auricle after it has got into th and may be returned without harm : these states should be carefully distinguished. If the omentum be gangrenous, the dead part should be cut off, and the other part returned, if haemorrhage is not likely to occnr from its surface. When the omentum is indurated, the indurated portion may be cut off. The parts are now to be dressed in the usual way. Q. Describe the operation for femoral or crural hernia. A. An incision is to be made from the point where the hernia protrudes, just above Pou- part's ligament, a little nearer to the symphysis pubis than the femoral vessels are, and be con- tinued the whole length of the tumor. Any glands which may lie over the hernia should be avoided. The aponeurotic fibres, which pro- ceed from the femoral fascia and ascend ob- liquely over the front of the thigh, are to be divided very cautiously. The hernial sac is to- be opened by means of a pair of dissecting forceps and bistoury, the operator raising the SURGERY. 103 part by taking hold of the cellular membrane attached to it, and is then to make a very small aperture by a horizontal cut; through this opening a director may be introduced, and the sac is to be divided nearly as high as Pou- part's ligament, and quite to the bottom of the tumor. The sac being laid open, a director should next be introduced within the crural ring, on the side of the intestine which is near- est the symphysis pubis, and an incision should be made directly upwards, for the purpose of cutting the femoral ligament. The protruded parts are then to be returned. Q. How would you treat a violent ophthal- mia? A. Bleed generally, and locally, according to the age of the patient. If there be great inflammation of the tunica conjunctiva, care- fully scarify it; apply soft emollient poultices to the eyes, renewing them often ; give saline purges and diaphoretics ; keep the eyes shaded; and, as the chronic stage succeeds, alter the remedies in some degree, according to circum- stances; apply astringent sedative lotions to the eyes, leaving off the poultices; make use of the tincture of opium, dropping in two or three drops, twice or thrice a day, between the eyelid and ball. Q. How would you treat gangrene in general ? A. With tonics, stimulants, and a mild diet, with brandy and wine. Q. When a locked jaw arises from an injury, how would you endeavor to relieve it ? 104 SURGERY. A. By making a free division of the injured part; and if this did not succeed, by amputat- ing, if possible. Anti-spasmodics, as opium and ether, must be given internally. Q. When a ball is lodged in the calf of the leg, and it is necessary to make an incision upon it, in what direction would you make that incision ? A. In a perpendicular direction. Q. How does the complete division of a punctured artery (as the temporal) stop the hemorrhage ? A. By the retraction of the extremities of the artery. Q. What is the cause of the cold sensation and numbness of the leg and foot, generally felt from an aneurism of the popliteal artery ? A. Pressure upon the popliteal nerve, which supplies the leg and foot with nervous influ- ence ; it is also caused by obstructed circula- tion, the popliteal artery losing part of its pow- er, and containing a quantity of coagulum. Q. If necessary to take up the brachial arte- ry, near the flexure of the arm, how will the circulation of the blood be carried on ? A. By the two profundas chiefly, which inos- culate with the recurrents of the ulnar and ra- dial arteries. Q. How is amputation of the shoulder-joint performed ? A. As there is no room for the application of the tourniquet in this operation, the axil- SURGERY. 105 lary artery is to be compressed by an assistant, by means of a pad, just where it passes over the first rib; or, to render the operation more safe, it is preferred to take up the axillary artery at once ; then, with a large common bistoury, a semi-circular incision is to be made with its convexity downwards, to across the integuments covering the deltoid muscle, about four inches below the acromion. The skin should not be detached, but the muscle is to be cleared from the bone quite up to the joint; then the tendons passing over the joint are to be cut through, also the capsular ligament, so as to allow the bone to be dislocated from the joint. Having done this, the skin and other parts, underneath the joint, are to be divided with one stroke of the knife ; after this, the cir- cumflex, or any small vessel that may bleed, should be secured and tied. The flap of the deltoid muscle is next to be laid down, so that its edge will meet the margin of the wound be- low. The operation is then finished by dressing. Q. What do you mean by hydrocele ? A. A collection of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis testis. Q. How many methods are there employed for the radical cure of hydrocele ? A. There are six different methods employed in the radical cure of hydrocele; viz. the inci- sion, the excision, the application of caustic, the introduction of a tent, the employment of a seton, and injecting some stimulating fluid into the cavity of the tunica vaginalis. 106 SURGERY. Q. How many ways can the lower jaw be dislocated ? A. The lower jaw can only be luxated for- wards on the zygomatic arches. Q. How many species of white swelling are there ? A. Two : the scrofulous and the rheumatic species. Q. What muscles are cut through in the ope- ration of lithotomy on the male ? A. The transversalis perinaei, and generally a part of the accelerator urinae, and sometimes a part of the levator ani. Q. What are the peculiarities of a gun-shot wound ? A. Great contusion and laceration, which produce a deadened state of the fibres immedi- ately surrounding the wound, that require to be thrown off in the form of slough, before the wound can heal; they also frequently contain pieces of cloth or bullets. Q. How many coats have the arteries ? A. Three ; the external is membranous or cellular; the middle muscular, composed of transverse fibres forming the segments of a cir- cle interposed between each other; and the inner coat is remarkably thin, smooth, and dense. These coats are connected by fine cel- lular substance. Q. How is an aneurismal tumor distinguished from other tumors ? A. By its pulsating, and by its receding, upon SURGERY. 107 pressure, and soon returning again to its usual bulk. Q. What is the substance generally found in aneurismal sacs ? A. The coagulable part of the blood, which is usually found in layers. Q. How is the amputation below the knee performed ? A. Having placed the patient in a proper position, and applied the tourniquet to com- press the artery, one assistant is to support the leg, while the other pulls up the integuments ; a circular incision is then to be made round the leg, to divide the integuments ; when these are divided, a portion of them is to be dissected back from the muscles, by means of a scalpel, sufficient to cover the stump; these being kept back, another circular incision is to be made with the knife, some way higher up than the first incision ; by this incision, the soft parts are divided quite to the bone. The inter- osseous ligament is then to be thoroughly divided by the scalpel, or the catlin; the soft part should be properly retracted, and the saw should next be applied, to divide the bones. After which, the spiculae left by the saw are to be removed by the pincers. The vessels are next to be secured by ligatures, slackening the tour- niquet from time to time, lest any vessel should not be secured. To discover this, it is always necessary to sponge away the clotted blood from the wound. After these precautions are taken, the edges of the wound are to be brought 108 SURGERY. together, by drawing the integuments over the surface of the wound; the ligatures are to be left out, and the wound covered with lint and cloth. Q. What are the consequences that generally arise from lacerated or wounded nerves ? A. Inflammation of the lacerated or wounded part, locked jaw, and convulsions. Q. What joint of the body is most subject to dislocation ? A. The shoulder-joint is most subject to dis- location. Q. How many ways may the head of the thigh-bone be dislocated % A. The head of the thigh-bone may be dis- located upwards on the dorsum of the ileum ; forwards on the os pubis; downwards on the ob- tural externus muscle, and backwards on the sciatic notch. Q. What are the symptoms of lumbar ab- scess ? A. This kind of abscess generally forms in a very insidious manner: in the incipient stage of the disease, the person cannot walk as well as usual, and feels a degree of uneasiness about the lumbar region ; but in general, there is no acute pain, even when the abscess has acquired such a size as to form a large tumor protruding externally. Q. What is meant by a compound fracture ? A. It is a fracture of the bone, attended with an external wound of the soft parts. SURGERY. 109 Q. What takes place when a bone is denud- ed of its periosteum ? A. Generally exfoliation, to a certain degree. Q. Why are luxations of the shoulder-joint more frequent than luxations of the hip-joint? A. Because the glanoid cavity is very super- ficial, to allow of extensive motion to the head of the os brachii, which is very large. The joint is also more exposed to unguarded blows, or ac- cidents, than any other joint. The hip-joint, on the contrary, is confined as to motion ;the aceta- bulum is also very deep in the fresh subject, so as almost to cover the head of the os femoris ; and thus this joint is rendered very strong. Q. What are the general causes of mortifi- cation ? A. The general causes of mortification are— an impeded flow of blood from a part; the stop- page of the flow of blood into the same ; and a disturbed state of this fluid, and of the nerves. Q. How many kinds of fever attend mortifi- cation ? A. There are three kinds of fever which may accompany mortification : 1. sympathetic inflammatory fever; 2. one attended with ex- treme debility, of a typhoid nature ; and 3. one depending upon derangement of the chylopoie- tic organs. Q. Under what circumstances is amputation of an extremity necessary ? A. Where the bone becomes much diseased ; where great laceration from gun-shot wounds has been produced; where great destruction of 9 110 SURGERY. parts has taken place in compound fracture ; and where, from other causes, the operation is required. Q. What forms the sac in femoral hernia ? A. The fascia of the thigh, and the peri- toneum. Q. In what direction is Poupart's ligament to be divided, if necessary, to liberate strangu- lated femoral hernia ? A. That recommended by Mr. Hey, is to in- troduce a director within the crural ring on that side of the intestine, or omentum, which is nearest to the symphysis of the pubes, and to make the incision directly upwards. Gim- bernat recommends the incision to be carried directly towards the symphysis pubis. Q. How many ways are there of puncturing the bladder, to relieve retention of urine ? A. First, from the perinaeum; secondly, above the os pubis ; thirdly, through the rec- tum in the male, and vagina in the female; fourthly, by dilating the meatus urinarius in the female. Q. On what part of the arm is pressure to be made before amputation of the fore-arm ? A. As high up as convenient; placing the pad at the inner edge of the biceps, so as to compress the artery against the bone. Q. At what part of the aorta do aneurisms most frequently occur ? A. At the arch of the aorta, just as it is about to descend. Q. What are the unfavorable circumstances SURGERY. Ill in compound fracture, that require the extremi- ty to be amputated ? A. When the wound of the soft parts is large and lacerated, and the bone or bones very much splintered, together with a violent degree of contusion of the neighboring muscles, am- putation is necessary ; but a prompt decision, in many cases of compound fracture, requires great discernment on the part of the surgeon, whether to amputate or not. Q. What are the signs of a fractured cra- nium ? A. A depression of a part of the skull, and the symptoms of pressure on the brain, as coma, stertorous breathing, loss of voluntary motion, convulsions, tumors, involuntary discharge of the urine and faeces, dilatation of the pupil, irregular pulse, and sometimes haemorrhage from the nose, eyes, and ears. Q. What is the cause of stupor, or coma, in fracture of the cranium ? A. Pressure upon the brain. Q. What is the medical treatment in frac- tures of the skull ? A. To bleed repeatedly, give saline purges, and order a low diet: the patient should be kept on the antiphlogistic regimen for near a month, to guard against subsequent inflamma- tion of the brain. Q. How many kinds of abscesses are there ? A. There are two kinds : the acute or phleg- monous, and the chronic abscess. 112 SURGERY. Q. What are the symptoms of suppura- tion? A. When matter is formed in a tumor, there is a remission of all the symptoms, the throb- bing pain goes off, and there is present a more dull heavy pain ; a conical eminence is obser- ved, which soon has a whitish or yellowish appearance, instead of a deep red ; and a fluc- tuation is often felt by an examination with the fingers. Rigors are present in extensive sup- purations, and accompany suppurations which take place in the viscera. Q. How are fistula? in perinaeo produced? A. Fistulae in perinaeo are generally produced by strictures in the urethra. The urine being restricted in its passage along the urethra, an ulceration takes place on the inside of that part of the urethra which is enlarged and within the stricture ; the internal membrane having ulcerated, the urine readily gets into the loose cellular membrane and substance of the-ure- thra ; an abscess is the consequence, which bursts externally and forms a fistulous opening. Q. Why are fistula? generally dilated ? A. To produce a new action in those ulcers, by which granulations take place from their bottom. Q. How is the radical cure of hydrocele performed ? A. By evacuating the fluid, and afterwards exciting such a degree of inflammation of the tunica vaginalis and testicle as will cause ad- hesion to take place, and consequently an ob- SURGERY. 113 literation of the cavity : this is either done by caustic, seton, incision, or by injection. Q. What is meant by epiphora ? A. By an epiphora is meant a redundancy or over secretion of tears, so that they run over the cheeks. Q. What are the causes of epiphora ? A. An epiphora may be caused by a more copious secretion of tears than the puncta lachrymalia can absorb ; and by an obstruction in the lachrymal canal. Q. What are the symptoms of empyema ? A. The most pathognomonic symptom is hearing the fluid rattle upon shaking the per- son's chest; there is also a difficulty of lying on the opposite side, difficulty of breathing, and sometimes an enlargement of the side of the chest which contains the fluid. Q. Where does a psoas abscess generally point ? A. In the groin, at the internal part of the thigh, and the loins. Q. What are the signs of a wounded artery ? A. Effusions of florid blood, and its being thrown out by jerks from the vessel. Q. What are the terminations of inflamma- tion ? A. Resolution, suppuration, and mortifica- tion. Q. What method is to be taken after a can- non ball has torn off the limb ? • A. To amputate the stump : sometimes it is 9# 114 SURGERY. necessary to perform the amputation above the nearest joint. Q. What are the circumstances that prevent the dilatation of gun-shot wounds to extract the extraneous substance ? A. When it is likely to create a great irrita- tion of the wound without gaining any advan- tage ; when the ball enters far into the sub- stance of a bone ; where it enters any of the large cavities; where the ball cannot be dis- covered ; and where the foreign bodies are less likely to create inflammation than their extrac- tion. Q. What is the treatment of gun-shot wounds ? A. First, when the wound is in any extremity. to determine for or against amputation, which in many cases requires great judgment; the am- putation should be performed before inflamma- tion arises, or a disposition to gangrene takes place in the limbs: should, however, amputation be deferred for a day or two, and the wound be highly inflamed, it is to be brought to a state of suppuration, at which period amputation, if needful, should be performed, weighing in mind the constitution of the patient, and other cir- cumstances. Extraneous substances are gene- rally to be extracted, particularly when they press upon an important viscus or a considera- ble nerve. If haemorrhage takes place from a large artery, it is to be exposed and tied. The external wound often requires dilating, but sometimes dilatation is improper. SURGERY. 115 Counter-openings are in some instances to be made, as when the ball lodges under con- tused skin that will probably slough ; but if the skin remain uninjured, and the ball is scarcely perceptible to the feel, this operation is improper, as the wound heals better when it is left alone. When sloughing takes place on the surface of a wound, its removal is favored by a plentiful suppuration. The rest of the treatment is similar to that for contused wounds. Q. How is chordee accounted for ? A. In chordee, the inflammation having affect- ed the corpus spongiosum as well as the urethra, it produces in it an extravasation of coagulable lymph, as in the adhesive inflammation, which, uniting the cells together, destroys the power of distension of the corpus spongiosum, and makes it unequal, in this respect, to the corpora cavernosa penis, and therefore a curvature takes place. Q. What is the treatment of contused wounds ? A. To prevent a high degree of inflamma- tion, which often terminates in gangrene ; this is to be effected by a strict antiphlogistic regimen, topical bleeding by leeches, &c. The forma- tion of pus is to be promoted by emollient poultices. Should gangrene succeed the in- flammation, warm stimulating applications are to be used, and the patient is to take bark, wine, and a nourishing diet. 116 SURGERY. Q. What are the terminations of erysipe- las ? A. Resolution, suppuration and gangrene. Q. Does.erysipelas generally terminate in suppuration ? A. No ; true erysipelas seldom suppurates, it generally ends in resolution or gangrene. Q. In what part is erysipelas attended with the greatest degree of constitutional disturb- ance ? A. The face and head. Q. Under what circumstances is an artificial anus to be formed ? A. Where absolute gangrene of an incarce- rated intestine has taken place. Q. How is gastroraphe performed ? A. Gastroraphe is employed to unite wounds of the abdomen in the following way :—two needles are placed on the same ligature, and introduced through both lips of the wound from within outwards including peritoneum, muscles and integuments. Q. What is the general treatment of the hip-joint disease ? A. In the early part of the disease of the hip-joint, entire rest, the application of fomen- tations, and the employment of topical bleed- ing, particularly cupping, are highly proper: this plan of treatment is to be adopted to reduce inflammation ; when no inflammation is present, recourse should be had to blisters, or caustic issues. Q. Where do surgeons generally recom- SURGERY. 117 mend the application of a caustic issue to re- lieve an affection of the hip ? A. In the depression just behind and below the trochanter major. Q. How is emphysema produced from a wound of the thorax ? A. By the lungs being wounded, and the consequent escape of air into the cellular membrane. Q. What is the treatment of wounds of the joints ? A. The admission of air into their cavities is to be obviated, as this causes a high degree of inflammation to take place. If the capsular ligament is much torn, amputation becomes necessary ; in other respects the joint is to be considered as under a high degree of inflam- mation, and the antiphlogistic regimen is to be adopted. If suppuration takes place in the cavity of the joints, the pus should be care- fully evacuated so as not to allow the air to enter. Q. What is meant by spina ventosa ? A. A disease affecting a bone, in which it becomes spongy and suppurates ; and the pus escapes by several openings. Q. What is the prognosis in wounds of the abdominal viscera ? A. Generally bad. Q. How may the contents of an abscess of the liver escape ? A. First, externally, by the liver forming an adhesion to the parietes of the abdomen, and 118 SURGERY. the abscess pointing on its external surface. Secondly, by adhesive inflammation taking place between the liver, diaphragm, and lungs, and the abscess evacuating itself into the lungs. Thirdly, by adhesion taking place between the liver and alimentary canal, and the abscess mak- ing its way into the stomach or intestine. Fourthly, into the cavity of the abddmen. Q. What symptoms accompany wounds of the abdominal viscera ? A. Profuse haemorrhage from the external wound : the escape of the contents of particu- lar viscera, attended with a small, feeble, and contracted pulse, pallid countenance, coldness of the extremities, great debility, hiccough, vomiting, spasm, and tension of the abdomen. Q. How many kinds of wounds are there ? A. Wounds are distinguished by the terms of incised, lacerated, punctured, contused, and poisoned. Q. How is the prognosis to be formed in wounds of the lungs ? A. If the lungs are wounded near the root, it is commonly fatal, from the haemorrhage that will ensue : should the lower and anterior part be wounded, and that superficially, the progno- sis may be more favorable. Q. What symptoms will enable you to dis- tinguished an enlarged prostate gland from stone in the bladder ? A. The symptoms attending a diseased pros- tate gland resemble those of stone in the the blad- der ; but with this difference, that the motion of SURGERY. H9 a coach or a horse does not increase the griev- ance when the prostate is affected, while it does so in an intolerable degree in cases of stone. Q. Are the symptoms of calculus complain- ed of by the person sufficient to convince a sur- geon that there is a stone in the bladder ? A. No : the operation of sounding must be had recourse to, before a calculus can be ascer- tained to exist. Q.. How is the hip disease distinguished from an affection of the knee-joint, as the forerun- ning symptoms of the hip-disease are generally pains about the knee, and no evident affection of the hip ? A. By a diminution of the circumference of the leg and thigh of the affected side, an elon- gation of the limb, and pressure upon the ace- tabulum exciting pain. Q. In taking up the brachial artery, what nerve are you to avoid including in the liga- ture ? A. The median nerve, which accompanies the brachial artery. Q. What are granulations ? A. They are secretions of coagulable lymph from the vessels of the exposed surface, which soon become organized, possessing vessels, nerves, and absorbents. Q. What forms the boundaries or cyst of an abscess ? A. A deposite of coagulable lymph, which becomes organized so as to form a cyst. 120 SURGERY. Q. How many modes are there of opening an abscess ? A. There are three principal ways of open- ing an abscess: 1. by the lancet; 2. by caus- tic ; 3. by seton. Most surgeons prefer the opening to be made by the lancet. Q. What is meant by a furunculus ? A. A circumscribed inflammatory tumor, which usually attains the size of a small wal- nut ; it imperfectly suppurates, and the matter is contained in a cyst. Q. In operating for encysted tumor, is it ne- cessary to remove the sac ? A. Yes: and, during the operation, care should be taken not to wound the sac during the extirpation of the tumor. Q. What is the cause of piles ? A. Pressure upon the vessels of the anus, which prevents the return of blood to the heart: as that from a gravid uterus, costiveness, tu- mors, and from long sitting ; which last allows the abdominal viscera to press upon the blood- vessels. Q. What is meant by meliceris ? A. Meliceris is a tumor of the encysted kind, the contents of which resemble honey. Q. What is meant by condyloma ? A. Tumors or excrescences about the anus are called condylomata. Q. What is meant by couching ? A. Couching consists in removing the opaque lens of the eye out of the axis of vision by means of a peculiarly formed needle. SURGERY. 121 Q. How is the operation for fistula lachry- malis performed ? A. First an opening is to be made at the most depending part of the tumor, by means of a lancet, which will discharge the sac of its contents ; a probe is then to be passed forward in the natural passage with moderate force ; should this be impracticable, an artificial open- ing is to be cautiously drilled on the anterior part of the os unguis by a trocar, or any other sharp instrument, in an oblique direction. When this has penetrated a sufficient depth, which may be ascertained by the want of re- sistance, and the discharge of blood by the nose, the perforator is to be removed, and a silver tube introduced into the opening, where it should remain till the passage is perfectly re-es- tablished. Q. What is an exostosis ? A. It is a tumor of bone formed upon bone. Q. What is meant by osteo-sarcoma ? A. It is a softening and conversion of bone into a substance not unlike to lard or fat; or the external table of the bone includes a sub- stance like fungus, instead of the cancellated internal structure. Q.. Is osteo-sarcoma a common disease ? A. No : it is fortunately very rare, and has been observed in a few cases to affect those who in youth had been rickety. Q. What is meant by sphacelus ? A. It is a complete mortification of a part, 10 122 SURGERY. whereby it loses its natural color, and becomes black and soft. Q. What is meant by sarcocele ? A. A scirrhous enlargement of the testicle. Q. What are the causes of fistula? in ano ? A. They are caused by the formation of abscesses about the anus, which spread among the interstices of the muscles, and between the integuments: these abscesses are produced originally by inflammation. There are also other causes which give rise to fistula?, as con- dylomatous tumors, &c. Q. If the carotids artery should be wound- ed, and assistance should be obtained in time to take up the vessel, what nerve are you to avoid including in the ligature ? A. In taking up the carotid artery, the pneu- mogastric nerve, which run close to the artery, should not be included in the ligature. Q. What are the symptoms of a cata- ract ? A. A cataract commences by a spot or speck in the pupil of the eye : it is most com- monly of a grey or whitish color. In the com- mencement of the disease it occasions a weak- ness or imperfection of the sight, and it termi- nates sooner or later in the almost total extinc- tion of vision. Q. How many kinds of cataracts are there ? A. Cataracts are distinguished into : 1. the firm cataract; 2. the fluid, or milky cataract; 3. the soft, or caseous cataract; 4. the mem- SURGERY. 123 branous cataract; and 5. the congenital cata- ract. Q. What is the treatment of a cata- ract? A. The treatment of a cataract consists in bleeding, cupping, scarifications, setons, issues, blisters, and fumigations ; and the principal internal remedies are aperients, emetics, ca- thartics, sudorifics, and sternutatories. Q. In a transverse wound of the trachea how is re-union effected ? A. The union of a transverse wound of the trachea is best effected by bringing the patient's head downwards and forwards to the sternum -y the head should be maintained in this position, and the edges of the wound should be kept in contact until they have grown together. Liga- tures are not recommended, as they create irritation in the trachea. Q. What are the vessels generally divided when a person cuts his throat ? A. When suicide is attempted by cutting the throat, the vessels cut through, are either the external maxillary, the lingual, or the thyroid artery : the trunk of the carotid artery is sel- dom cut. Q. How does a false aneurism take place ? A. A false aneurism is occasioned by an aperture of an artery allowing the blood to rush into the cellular structure. Q. What veins are most subject to varix ? 124 SURGERY. A. The superficial veins of the lower ex- tremity ; and the varix generally takes place in the situation of a valve. Q. What are the indications of cure in varix ? A. There are two indications ; viz. to remove every impediment to the free return of blood, and to restore the distended vessel to its former size. Q. How is amputation of the fingers or toes accomplished ? A. In amputating the fingers or toes a small semilunar incision is to be made on the back of the finger or toe, which should extend, forming a convexity about half an inch in front of the joint; the flap is next to be raised and reflect- ed : having effected this, the skin in front of the finger over the joint is to be divided, and this incision must extend across the finger or toe, and meet the two ends of the first semi- lunar incision ; then pending the finger, the capsular ligament is to be divided, which will allow the head of the bone to be dislocated. Should the digital arteries bleed much, they may be secured, but the haemorrhage often stops without having recourse to ligature ; the flap is to be brought over' the wound, and the edges of the wound kept together by adhesive plaster. Q. What diseases is the antrum of High- more subject to ? A. Its membranous lining may inflame or ulcerate; polypi or other fleshy excrescences SURGERY. 125 may grow in it; the mucous secretion may be of a bad quality, and the opening, through which it passes into the nose, may be closed ; the bony cavity may be carious, or may form bony excrescences. Q. What is the treatment of a carbuncle ? A. The treatment of a carbuncle is as fol- lows. In the local treatment the grand thing is to make an early and free incision into the tumor, so as to allow the sloughs and matter to escape readily. As much of the matter as possible is to be at once pressed out, and then the part is to be covered with an emollient poultice. With respect to the constitutional treatment, bark and camphor are the internal medicines most commonly needed. Sulphuric acid may also be given, as well as wine and aromatics, and opium when the pain is very severe. Q. How is emphysema distinguished from anasarca ? A. Emphysema is distinguished from ana- sarca by the crackling noise produced upon pressure, and by the rapidity of the swelling. Q. What is the general division of stric- tures ? A. The general division of strictures is into : —spasmodic, which depends upon a spasmodic contraction of a part of the canal;—and perma- nent stricture, which is caused by a partial nar- rowness, forming a ridge. There is also another kind of stricture, which depends upon 10* 126 SURGERY. a permanent contraction and an occasional spasmodic affection. Q. How is the introduction of the male catheter effected ? A. The introduction of the male catheter is performed in the following manner:—The penis should be drawn upwards, and held by the left hand. Having oiled the catheter, it is to be introduced into the urethra with its con- cavity towards the abdomen, pressing its point downwards until it reaches the bulb of the urethra ; when this has happened, the beak of the instrument has passed under the arch of the pubes ; the handle of the instrument is then to be gradually brought forward between the, patient's thighs, and during this action the beak of the instrument becomes elevated, and slips into the bladder. The operation may be per- formed, either when the patient is standing, sitting, or on his back. Q. What is the character of a scorbutic ulcer ? A. A scorbutic ulcer is one that affords a fetid, sanious, and bloody discharge ; the edges are of a livid color, and the surface is covered with a loose spongy flesh : there are generally other symptoms which establish its nature, such as loose spongy gums, and livid spots of the skin. Q. What kind of treatment do gun-shot wounds require ? A. In general, gun-shot wounds require the antiphlogistic plan of treatment. StJRGERY. 127 Q. What is meant by a polypus ? A. A polypus is a fleshy tumor of the cavities which communicate with the natural openings of the body, which is generally nar- row where it originates, and then becomes wider, somewhat like a pear. Q. What parts are most subject to polypi I A. Polypi are most commonly met with in the nose, uterus, vagina, and antrum of High- tmore. Q. In the cure of polypus, which is to be preferred, extirpation or ligature ? A. As the extraction of polypus is invaria- bly attended with haemorrhage, ligature is gene- rally preferred. Q. What is the treatment of a fractured rib ? A. In a case of fractured rib, the action of the chest is to be confined, and the ends of the fractured ribs are to be kept as nearly as possi- ble in apposition, which may be effected by surrounding the body with a wide roller. It may also be necessary to bleed the patient, and adopt the antiphlogistic regimen, to guard against inflammation. Q. What is a bronchocele ? A. Bronchocele is an indolent enlargement of the thyroid body. Q. What method is to be taken, if, after liberating a strangulated intestine by operation, a great quantity of irreducible thickened omen- tum exists ? A. The indurated omentum is to be cut off, anless hemorrhage, or other circumstances, 4 128 SURGERY. forbid it; in such cases it may be left unre- turned. Q. What is the difference between a femora!! and an inguinal hernia ? A. In femoral hernia the intestine or omen- tum protrudes under Poupart's ligament, and in inguinal hernia, it protrudes through the abdo- minal ring. Q. What are the circumstances by which you judge the operation necessary to liberate a strangulated hernia ? A. If reduction of the hernial contents can- not be effected by the hand, aided by the posi- tion of the patient, and by bleeding, cathartics, clysters, cold topical applications, the warm bath, and tobacco-smoke introduced into the rectum, each of which having been judiciously tried without effect, the operation then is im- periously demanded. Q. What means would you have recourse to in order to reduce a strangulated hernia, before you judge it necessary to perform the operation ? A. First, the patient should be placed in a suitable position, with the pelvis elevated, the thigh bent and rotated inwards, and the reduc- tion of the hernial contents skilfully attempted; should this fail, bleeding should be had recourse to ; and it is recommended to take away the blood suddenly, so as to occasion fainting, at which time the taxis should again be attempt- ed. Success not being obtained, cathartics and the warm bath should be speedily made SURGERY. 129 use of. These with the taxis not having suc- ceeded, then the united effect of cold to the tumor, and tobacco, either in fume or decoc- tion, must be tried; and if strangulation still continue after these means have been used, another attempt by the hand should be made: all these failing, the operation should be per- formed, the protraction of which beyond a cer- tain time would endanger the patient. Q. What is meant by scrofula ? A. Scrofula is a disease of the glands of the neck, axilla, or groin, or other parts, in which they enlarge slowly, suppurate and heal as slowly, with a peculiar constitution of body. Q. What are rickets owing to ? A. Rickets seem to consist in a want of due firmness in the bones, in consequence of a deficiency of phosphate of lime in their struc- ture. Q. What are the best remedies for rickets ? A. A nourishing diet, dry air, the sea-side, cold bathing, and tonics, especially steel. Q. What is meant by a sinus ? A. A sinus is a long hollow tract, leading from some abscess or diseased bone. Q. What are the symptoms of retention of urine ? A. A swelling above the os pubis, a violent inclination to make water, tension and pain of the abdomen, cold perspirations, oppressed respiration ; hiccough and fainting follow. Q. How would you attempt to relieve a re- tention of urine, in a medical point of view ? 130 SURGERY. A. I would bleed copiously; apply leeches to the perineum, or above the os pubis; ex- hibit opium by the mouth, and in clysters ; use the warm bath, and apply fomentations to the bypogastrium and perineum. Q. When these means fail to evacuate the urine, what would you have recourse to ? A. To the catheter. Q. What do you mean by a popliteal aneu- rism 1 A. A dilatation of the popliteal artery form- ing a pulsating tumor in the ham. Q. Describe the operation for popliteal aneu- rism. A. An incision should be made about two inches and a half through the skin and fascia of the thigh, on the inner edge of the sartorius muscle : as soon as the femoral artery is felt, a careful incision is to be made on each side of it, in order that the finger may be passed under it; a double ligature is then to be introduced by means of a blunt needle under the vessel, leaving out the femoral vein and the accompa- i ing branches of the anterior crural nerve; one portion of the ligature is to be tied as high, the other as low, as the detachment of the artery will allow. The part of the vessel between the ligatures is to be divided, and after this the external wound is to be brought together and dressed in the usual way. Q. What is meant by suppuration ? A. Suppuration signifies a process by which a peculiar fluid, termed pus, is formed in the SURGERY, 131 substance, or from the surface, of parts of the body, when such parts are particularly cir- cumstanced. Q. What is meant by ranula ? A. By ranula is meant a tumor under the tongue, arising from an obstruction in the duct of the submaxillary gland, or in an obstruction of a follicle. Q. What are hemorrhoids ? A. Hemorrhoids, or piles, are generally vari- cose hemorrhoidal veins, but some surgeons consider them to be occasionally formed by effused blood which becomes organized. Q. What are the symptoms of phlegmon ? A. Phlegmon is a tumor attended with heat, redness, pain, tension, and more or less of the synochal fever. Q. How would you treat a phlegmon ? A. First by endeavoring to effect a resolu- tion by local or general bleeding, the antiphlo- gistic regimen, the exhibition of saline cathar- tics and diaphoretics, and the use of cold, astrin- gent, sedative applications, warm emollient poultices, and fomentation, according to its nature. If suppuration should commence, by giving tonics and cordials, a generous diet, and forwarding the process by poultices. If mor- tification should appear likely to ensue, bark, acids, and wine, will be proper, also stimulating poultices of beer-grounds, and fomentations with bitter decoctions and camphorated spirit. Q. Kow are issues made ? A. Issues are made by making an opening 132 SURGERY. either with a lancet or caustic, large enough to admit a pea. Q. How many ways may dislocation of the wrist occur ? A. The carpal bones may be luxated from the lower ends of the radius and ulna forwards, backwards, inwards, or outwards. The two first cases, especially the one backwards, are the most frequent. Q. How many ways may the foot be dislo- cated 1 A. The foot may be dislocated inwards or outwards, forwards or backwards. Q. Why do dislocations of the foot inwards occur more frequently than dislocations out- wards ? A. Dislocations of the foot inwards occur more frequently than outwards, from the mal- leolus internus not being so low as the malleo- lus externus. Q. How are dislocations of the foot in- wards or outwards to be reduced ? A. To accomplish this it is necessary to relax the strong muscles of the calf by bend- ing the leg on the thigh. The case is after- wards to be treated as a fracture of the leg. Q. What is the treatment after amputa- tion ? A. The chief circumstances to be attended to after amputation are :—to adopt the anti- phlogistic regimen, to prevent inflammation, which is to be regulated by the constitution of the patient; the first dressing ought to be SURGERY. 133 removed the third or fourth day after the opera- tion, and new dressings are to be applied as at first, every day until the inflammation has sub- sided. The ligatures are to be very gently pul- led after the first week until they come easily off. Q. What is the treatment of hernia humo- ralis, or inflammation of the testicle ? A. In hernia humoralis the patient should be kept in a horizontal position ; if young and plethoric, bleeding should be adopted. It is generally necessary to apply leeches repeated- ly; to administer saline purgatives ; fomenta- tions and poultices, or cold lotions, are to be had recourse to, and the testicle is to be sup- ported by a bag truss. Should there be great pain in the loins, opiates will become necessa- r}r: if, after the inflammation has subsided, an induration should exist, frictions with mercu- rial ointment will be found beneficial. Q. When the parotid duct is wounded, what are the consequences which may be expected to arise ? A. When the parotid duct is wounded, if not united by the first intention, a salivary fis- tula is the consequence. Q. What are the indications of cure in mor- tification ? A. The indications of cure in mortification are, to arrest the progress of the disease and to promote the separation of the mortified part. Q. How is the division of the frenum lin- gua? to be effected, and what are the veins to be avoided ? 11 134 SURGERY. A. The liberation of the frenum lingua? consists in dividing the frenum as far as seems necessary with a pair of sharp scissors with blunt points:—the ranine veins must be cau- tiously avoided in this operation. Q. How many kinds of fractures are there ? A. There are two principal kinds of frac- tures:—1. simple fractures, or a division of one or more bones, without any external wound, from the protrusion of the ends of the bones ; 2. compound fractures, or those where there is a breach of one or more bones ; and the integuments lacerated by the protrusion of one or both of the ends of the fracture. Q. What is the general treatment of fractures ? A. In the general treatment of fractures, the limb is to be placed in such a position as will relax those muscles which tend to displace the ends of a fractured bone ; this seems best effected by placing the limb in a middle state between flexion and extension ; the ends of the fractured bone are to be confined in a state of apposition ; this is done by the aid of splints secured by straps :—to remedy the effects of pressure from the splints, compresses of tow or other soft substances are usually placed under the splints. An eighteen-taii bandage is generally made use of in fractures of the long bones, and is applied close to the limb. When there is much inflammation of the limb before the fracture is set, linen wetted with cold saturnine lotions is to be applied between the splints and limb, which should be kept cold SURGE Rr. 135 and moist by repeatedly squeezing the lotion over the limb. It may be necessary to bleed or give opiates, according to circumstances. Q. What is the situation of the protruded viscera in congenital hernia ? A. In congenital hernia the protruded vis- cera are situated in the tunica vaginalis in con- tact with the testicle; having descended into this position before the closure of the commu- nication with the abdomen. Q. In umbilical hernia, by what is the stric- ture formed when strangulation takes place ? A. In strangulated umbilical hernia the stricture is made by the tendinous openin°* in the linea alba. Q. How is a ganglion to be cured ? A. A ganglion may often be removed by pressure: sometimes it may be necessary to remove it by the scalpel, or to make a perfora- tion in it, and allow its contents to escape. Q. How do aneurisms terminate if not cured ? A. Aneurismal swellings, if not cured, gra- dually increase in size ; the skin over the tumor becomes pale ; the pain increases, and the skin begins to grow livid ; a degree of inflamma- tion takes place ; the skin cracks, and dis- charges for some time a bloody serum, until at length it becomes quite gangrenous, when all of a sudden the tumor bursts, and the patient dies from hemorrhage. Q. What is a steatoma? A. Steatoma is a tumor containing a fatty 136 SURGERY. substance, and surrounded by a cyst of indu- rated cellular membrane. Q. What is meant by atheroma ? A. Atheroma is an encysted tumor contain- ing matter of a doughy consistence. Q. What is meant by tic doloureux ? A Tic doloureux is a painful affection of the nerves, and mostly those of the face, particu- larly of the filaments of that branch of the fifth pair of nerves which comes out through the infra-orbitar foramen. Q. What is the most efficacious plan to be adopted for the relief of the tic doloureux ? A. It is mostly symptomatic of some disease, and therefore requires the treatment for the re- moval of that disease : some recommend, when the primary disease cannot be detected, to cut down and divide the nerve above where the pain is seated. Q. What prognosis can be formed after the operation for hernia ? A. If the operation to liberate strangulated hernia be performed early, there is compara- tively little danger. The danger is dependent upon the operation being delayed after neces- sity demands it. Mortification has ensued within twelve hours after strangulation ; and in some few instances strangulation has been known to subsist for several days, and no mor- tification take place. Q. What causes give rise to prolapsus ani 1 A. The causes that give rise to prolapsus ani are costiveness, debility, hemorrhoidal SURGERY. 137 swellings, or the effect of stimulating substances that increase the action of the rectum. Q. What are the signs of luxation in general 1 A. In luxations the shape of the joint is altered; the motion of the limb is much im- paired ; a certain degree of inflammation takes place, the pain attending whjch is sometimes so acute as to occasion convulsions, or spasmodic affections, from the compression of nerves by the displaced bone. Q. How are luxations of the collar-bone to be cured % A. Luxations of the collar-bone are easily reduced by pressure with the fingers : but there is great difficulty in keeping the bone in this situation. The arm should be raised and confined by bandages ; a compress should be placed on the luxated bone, to prevent the action of the muscles drawing the bone out of its place. Q. How is a venereal ophthalmia cured ? A. In the treatment of venereal ophthalmia mercurial frictions are to be made use of, and the decoctum sarsaparillae compositum should be taken. A collyrium of the bichloride of mercury is recommended. The eyelid may be also smeared with the unguentum hydrargyri mitrico-oxydi. ; Q. What is a thrombus ? A. A thrombus is a tumor formed by a col- lection of extravasated coagulated blood under the integuments after bleeding-. 11* 138 SURGERY. Q. What are the causes of a thrombus / A. A thrombus sometimes depends on the vein being completely divided; but it more frequently depends on the opening of the vein not corresponding to that of the skin. Q. Where is the blood effused in thrombus ? A. Thrombus is caused by the blood being effused into the cellular membrane, by the side of the vein. Q. In what directions do luxations of the head of the os brachii most commonly take place ? A. The dislocation of the head of the os brachii generally takes place into the axilla. Q. How is dislocation of the thigh distin- guished from a fracture of its neck 1 A. Dislocation may be distinguished from fracture of the head of the femur by these cir- cumstances :—in fracture, the leg is much shorter ; the limb can be moved in many di-. rections ; the toes mostly turn outwards ; by particular motions, a grating may be perceived, and a loss of continuity. In dislocations of the thigh joint, the leg is generally much length- ened, the toes are turned outwards, and it is almost impossible to turn them inwards, al least without giving the greatest pain ; a va- cancy is observed at the seat of the acetabu- lum, and a tumor is felt, which is caused bj the head of the bone out of the acetabulum. Q. Define a caries. A. Caries is a mortification of a bone, attend- ed with an ichorous fetid discharge. SURGERY. 139 Q. Why does the tooth-ache produce gene-" rally so acute and considerable a pain ? A. From the inflamed vessels of the nerve, or pulp within the tooth being confined. Q. What are the causes that gives rise to ischuria ? A. Ischuria may arise from inflammation of the bladder, produced from various causes; spasms affecting the neck of the bladder; scir- rhosities of the prostate gland ; caruncles in the urethra ; pressure of the uterus in the last months of pregnancy; tumors in the perineum and vagina, as prolapsus of the uterus ; polypi, or enlargement of the corpus spongiosum ; the penis itself pressing the sides of the urethra together. Ischuria may also arise from a loss of tone in the bladder itself, and from stones impacted in the urethra. Q. How is cystocele distinguished from bubonocele ? ' A. Cystocele is always easily distinguishable by the regular diminution of the swelling whenever the patient makes water. Q. What constitutes a phrenic hernia ? A. A phrenic hernia is constituted by the abdominal viscera occasionally protruding through the diaphragm, either through some of the natural apertures of this muscle, or de- ficiencies or lacerations in it. Q. What is meant by hematocele scroti ? A. A tumor produced by blood being extra- yasated in the scrotum, tunica vaginalis, or in the spermatic chord; it is mostly occasioned 140 SURGERY. by some external violence, as blows inflicted on the scrotum or surrounding parts, producing a rupture of vessels. Q. What are the symptoms of a punctured nerve from bleeding ? A. In punctured nerve from bleeding the patient feels a more acute pain than usual under the operation; a numbness is communicated to the shoulder, and down to the fingers : these symptoms are often succeeded by spasms of the neck and jaw, frightful dreams ; and the patient becomes extremely irritable and deli- rious. Q. What is a cataract ? A. An opacity of the crystalline lens or its capsule. Q. What is meant by mollities ossium ? A. A state of bones whereby they become soft and preternaturally flexible. Q. If the head of the shoulder-bone is luxat- ed upwards, what is the consequence ? A. When the head of the shoulder-bone is luxated upwards, a fracture of the acromion process takes place. Q. What is the direction in which luxations of the ulna most commonly happen ? A. Luxations of the ulna most frequently take place upwards and backwards. Q,. What are the common causes of psoas abscess ? A. The cases which give rise to abscess of the psoas muscle are, excessive fatigue from walking, and then exposing the back to cold SURGERY. 141 while the body is still warm with exercise. It may also be brought on by strains, attempting to raise great weights, or by twists when car- rying a heavy load on the back. Q. On the first attack of inflammation of the psoas muscle, what is to be done ? A. When inflammation has attacked the psoas muscle, the antiphlogistic plan is to be adopted; and bleeding, the warm bath, purga- tives, &c, must be had recourse to. Q. How is a dislocation of the lower jaw reduced ? A. A dislocation of the lower jaw is reduced by passing both thumbs, previously covered with a linen cloth, into the mouth; the jaw is then to be pushed backwards, depressing the angles, and raising the symphysis of the jaw at the same time by gentle pressure ; the jaw im- mediately springs back into its natural situation by the action of the muscles. Q. What is a fungus ? A. A fungus is a soft fleshy mass rising out of an old wound or ill-conditioned ulcer, and preventing its healing. Q. How are dislocations of the os femoris reduced. A. In dislocations of the thigh-bone, when the head is on the obturator externus, the mus- cles of the thigh are first to be relaxed as much as possible, the limb* is then to be extended to displace the end of the bone from its cavity : when this is effected, the bone is to be drawn upwards and inwards into its socket; this gen- 142 SURGERY. erally effects the reduction: but should the bone be above the acetabulum, a slight exten- sion will effect its reduction. It happens occa- sionally that the head of the bone is not reduced, owing to the projection of the acetabulum pre- venting the necessary extension; the bone must then be elevated a little over this projec- tion, and the reduction will be effected. Q. In mortification of a limb, what state are the arteries in near the diseased part ? A. When mortification takes place at the lower part of an extremity, the diameter of the arteries is diminished near the diseased r art, and they become stopped up with coagulated blood. Q. When an artery is tied by ligature, how is a permanent obliteration of its channel effect- ed ? A. After an artery is stopped by ligature, coagulable lymph is separated near the frac- tured part; this becomes organized, and unites the sides of the artery together, and thus ob- literates the artery. Q. In injuries of the gall-bladder or liver, what prognosis is to be given ? A. In wounds of the liver the prognosis is bad, by reason of the great quantity of blood flowing through that viscus, and the soft tex- ture of the liver itself, which renders it very apt to pour out a great quantity of blood from a small wound. Injuries of the gall-blad- der are still worse : as, in such cases, the bile is evacuated into the cavity of the abdomen, SURGERY. 143 where its tendency to putrefaction soon pro- duces the most fatal effects. Q. What are the properties of pus ? A. Pus is a fluid of a lightish color, of the consistence of cream : it has little smell, is void of acrimony, and consists of globules swimming in a transparent, colorless fluid. Its specific gravity is greater than that of water. Q. What are the differences between pus and mucus ? A. Pus is distinguished from mucus by the following circumstances:—Pus sinks in water, mucus floats: pus gives to water a uniform white color ; mucus has a ropy appearance in water. If pus and mucus are mixed with sulphuric acid, on the addition of water the pus is precipitated to the bottom, and the mucus forms swimming flakes. A solution of caustic alkali dissolves both pus and mucus; but, on the addition of water, the pus is separated, and not the mucus. Q. What are the symptoms which announce the formation of pus in inflammation of the hip-joint? A. The sumptoms which point out the for- mation of pus in inflammation of the hip-joint are various, as the disease may be acute or chronic. When the former takes place, the parts surrounding the joint become tense and painful, the skin red, and inflammatory fever takes place : as the pain abates, rigors succeed, and a swelling is observed about the joint. When the abscess is the consequence of chronic 144 SURGERY. inflammation, an increase of pain takes place previous to the occurrence of suppuration: startings and catchings during sleep are noticed; the pus in the chronic species is a long while before it arrives at the surface; at length a fluctuating tumor forms, but it does not imme- diately point. Q. What is meant by hydrops articuli ? A. By hydrops articuli is meant a collection of serous fluid in the capsular ligament of a joint. Q. How is a fracture of the neck of the humerus distinguished from a luxation ? A. When the neck of the humerus is frac- tured, a depression is observed at the superior extremity and external side of the arm: in luxation, downwards and inwards, of the head of the bone under the projection of the acro- mion, a deep depression is found in the part which the head of the humerus before occu- pied ; whereas, in fracture of the neck of that bone, the shoulder retains its original form: the acromion does not project, and the depres- sion is found below the point of the shoulder : besides, the unequal and fractured extremity of the bone will be easily felt; a crepitus may also be heard, by moving the arm in different directions. Q. What is the character of cancerous ulcer ? A. Cancerous ulcer is irregular in its figure, and unequal on its surface ; the edges are thick, serrated, and extremely painful; there are large chasms in its substance, produced SURGERY. 145 partly by sloughing, and partly by an ulcerating process. The ulcer affords a very fetid sanious matter, it spreads with great rapidity, and in its progress produces frequent hemorrhages. Q. What prognosis is to be given of wounds of the oesophagus ? A. Wounds of the oesophagus generally are mortal. Q. How is the removal of a tumor from the breast performed ? A. In removing a tumor from the breast, the operation is generally performed as the patient is in a sitting position. The pectoral muscle is to be made tense by keeping the arm back, and if none of the integuments are to be removed, a straight incision is to be made through them ; the tumor is to be regularly dissected all round from the circumjacent parts, and its base is to be detached from its connec- tions from above downwards, till the whole is separated. If the tumor is of a malignant nature, and adhering to the skin and pectoral muscle beneath, an inch or two of the fat should be removed on every side of the dis- eased part; and after the removal of the tumor, the surface of the pectoral muscle, wherever it is adhering to the tumor, should be removed. Q. What is a node ? A. A node is a swelling of a bone, the peri- osteum, or a tendon, mostly arising from a venereal cause. Q. What is understood by anchylosis ? 13 146 SURGERY. A. It is the accretion of the extremities of bones, and a stiffening of the joint. Q. Is anchylosis the effect of disease of the bones, or of the inter-articular cartilages ? A. It may be the effect of both. Q. What parts of the scapula are most com- monly fractured ? A. The parts of the scapula most liable to fracture are the acromion, inferior angle, neck, and coracoid process. Q. What bad consequences may be appre- hended from a fractured rib ? A. The bad consequences of a fractured rib may be, that a spicula may be driven inwards, it may lacerate the pleura, wound the lungs, and cause the dangerous train of symptoms attendant on emphysema. Q. What is the character of a venereal ulcer in the throat ? A. A venereal ulcer affecting the throat is very deep; it has a defined or thick edge, and is generally very foul, having a lardaceous slough adhering to it that cannot be detached. Q. How is the vena saphena to be tied when in a varicose state .' A. The vena saphena is to be tied by pass- ing a ligature under the vessel: the integu- ments are to be pinched up into a transverse fold, and the ligature is to be conveyed under the vessel by means of a blunt silver needle. Q. Is there any danger in tying a vein for the cure of varix ? A. Yes : sometimes inflammation and sup- SURGERY. 147 puration of the vein take place, accompanied with considerable fever, which has been known to prove fatal. Q. Where is the fluid in hydrocele situated .' A. The fluid in hydrocele is situated in the tunica vaginalis. Q. What is the object in the radical cure of hydrocele ? A. The object to be effected in the cure of hydrocele is to excite such a degree of inflam- mation in the tunica vaginalis, forming the cavity, as shall end in an adhesion of that membrane, so as to obliterate any cavity for the reception of fluid. Q. How is hydrocele distinguished from other tumors ? A. Hydrocele is distinguished from hernia by the tumor in hernia being somewhat elastic, and becoming more distended when the person coughs. The swelling in hernia always begins at the top, and extends gradually downwards. Hydrocele is distinguished from encysted drop- sy of the chord by the swelling lying at the superior part of the scrotum, whilst in hydro- cele it is at the inferior part. It may be distin- guished from scirrhous testicle, being firm, hard, and not yielding upon pressure, and from the great weight in proportion to its bulk. In hydrocele, a lighted candle, placed at the opposite side of the tumor, will make the con- tents of the sac seem transparent. Q. What are the favorable symptoms that point out success from trepanning ? 148 SURGERY. A. The favorable symptoms which point out success from trepanning are, the patient be- coming less stupid, his breathing less oppressed, and the pupils contracting upon exposure to strong light. Q. If, after trepanning, a collection of fluid should be found in the tunica arachnoidea, how is it to be removed ? A. Under such circumstances, a small inci- sion may be cautiously made through the dura mater, to evacuate it. Q. What is meant by a fissure of the cra- nium ? A. It is a partial fracture, in which the bone is, as it were, cracked only. Q. How many kinds of dislocations of the patella are there ? A. The patella may be luxated outwards or inwards. The luxation outwards is most common, because the bone more easily slips in this direction off the outer condyle of the femur than inwardly. Q. How may the tibia be luxated ? A. The tibia may be luxated forward, back- ward, or to either side. Q. When the parotid duct is wounded, what is the consequence ? A. The consequence of wounding the paro- tid duct is a fistulous opening which discharges saliva, particularly during meals. Q. What is meant by an ecchymosis ? A. Ecchymosis is an extravasation of blood SURGERY. 149 in the cellular membrane, occasioned by a rupture of the small vessels of the part. Q. What is meant by exfoliation .' A. Exfoliation is a separation of a dead portion of bone from the living. Q. What method is to be taken to prevent exfoliation that is likely to occur from a wound ? A. In attempting to prevent exfoliation that may take place from a wound, all that is to be done, is to cover the exposed bone as soon as possible with the flesh that has been detached. Q. By what name is the dead bone called in necrosis ? A. It is called the sequestra. Q. What bones does necrosis most fre- quently attack ? A. The hard or middle parts of those slightly covered with muscular substance, such as the inferior maxilla, clavicle, os humeri, tibia, and cranium. Q. Does the new formed osseous shell sur- round the sequestra ? A. Yes; the new case is formed around the old dead bone. I Q. How then does the sequestra get out ? A. It generally produces irritation, inflam- mation, and suppuration of a surrounding part, and thus forms an opening for itself; or this process is facilitated by a surgical operation of making or enlarging the opening, and ex- tracting the loose sequestra. Q. Is the sequestra not absorbed ? 12* 150 SURGERY. A. Yes; in young people especially, it is frequently all absorbed ; and in every case a considerable portion of its circumference is converted into a kind of pus, and absorbed. Q. How are fistule in perineo to be dress- ed after they have been laid open ? A. Fistule in perineo, after being laid open, are to be dressed quite down to the end, to allow of granulations shooting up from the bot- tom before re-union of the parts takes place. Q. What is meant by simple fracture ? A. By simple fracture is meant a breach of continuity of bone without an external wound. Q. How is luxation of the tibia reduced ? A. A luxation of the tibia is most easily reduced by making gentle extension, and push- ing the head into its proper place. Q. What is meant by extravasation ? A. Extravasation is a term applied by sur- geons to fluids which are out of their proper vessels or receptacles. Q. What is meant by fistula lachrymalis ? A. Fistula lachrymalis is a disease arising from an obstruction in the ductus nasalis, and preventing the tears and mucus of the lachry- mal parts of the eye from descending into the nose. Q. What regimen do gun-shot wounds re« quire ? A. Gun-shot wounds generally require the antiphlogistic regimen. Q. How is the operation for phymosis per- formed ? „, SURGERY. 151 A. This operation is performed by intro- ducing a directory under the prepuce, then passing a curve-pointed bistoury, and slitting open the prepuce. Q. Where do strictures most frequently take place in the urethra ? A. Strictures most commonly occur in the membranous part of the urethra, from its being more acted upon by the salts of the urine ; the urine, after being expelled from the bladder, remains at this part of the urethra to be thrown out by the acceleratores urine. Q. From whence does the discharge of gonorrhoea flow ? A. The discharge of gonorrhoea flows from the mucous lacune of the urethra. Q. What muscles are divided in amputation of the thigh ? A. The muscles divided in amputation of the thigh are the biceps flexor cruris, semiten* dinosus, semimembranosus, gracilis, sartorius, vastus externus, vastus internus, rectus femo- ris, crureus, and the long tendon of the adduc- tor magnus. Q. At what part of the os femoris do frac- tures most frequently take place ? A. Fractures of the os femoris most frequent- ly take place at the middle third of its extent. Q. What part of the tibia is most liable to be fractured ? A. The part of the tibia most liable to frac- tures is a little above the internal malleolus, j A 152 SURGERY. Q. What is meant by spina bifida ? A. Spina bifida is a disease attended with an incomplete state of some of the vertebre, and a fluid swelling, which is most commonly situat- ed over the lower lumbar vertebre, sometimes over the dorsal and cervical ones, and in some instances over the os sacrum. Q. What prognosis is to be given in spina bifida? A. The prognosis in spina bifida is bad ; whether the tumor is opened or not, death almost always follows. Q. What are the symptoms of stone in the urinary bladder ? A. The symptoms of the calculus are, a dull uneasy sensation about the neck of the bladder, with a similar sensation at the glans penis: this increases, and becomes more frequent. In voiding the urine the stream is frequently stopped, and great pain is produced at the neck of the bladder; in order to obtain ease, the patient changes his position ; sometimes small pieces of stone are voided. The urine is occa- sionally charged with mucus, at other times limpid: sometimes it is tinged with blood, especially after violent exercise : but the most certain sign' is touching the stone with the sound. Q. What sensation is communicated to the operator upon touching a stone in the bladder with the sound ? v A. When a stone in the bladder is touched ^SURGERY. 153 with the sound, a tremulous motion is commu- nicated to the fingers of the operator. Q. Why is the finger introduced into the rectum while sounding ? A. The finger is introduced into the rectum while sounding, in order to raise the under- most part of the bladder, and consequently to bring the calculus into such a situation that the sound may touch it. Q. What disease is likely to be mistaken for stone in the bladder ? A. An enlarged prostate gland: this has symptoms resembling stone, but with the differ- ence that the motion of a coach, or horse, does not increase the grievance as it does when there is stone; beside which, the fits of pain from stone come on at intervals, while in diseased prostate the pain is not so unequal nor so acute. Q. What are the organic derangements of the prostate gland ? A. The prostate gland is sometimes inflamed ; enlarged and hardened, or scirrhous; suppu- rates, and forms an abscess containing common pus, or scrofulous white curdy matter; calculi are found in its ducts ; it is sometimes preter- naturally small. Q. After the operation for lithotomy, what disease is sometimes brought on ? A. Peritonitis is the disease which is mostly brought on from the operation of lithotomy ; and the majority of those who die after litho- tomy perish from peritoneal inflammation. Q. What treatment should be adopted if 154 SURGEhY. inflammation of the peritoneum succeed the operation for lithotomy ? A. Copious venesection should be put in practice. At the same time eight or ten leeches should be applied to the hypogastric region. The belly should be fomented, and the bowels kept open with the oleum ricini. Together with the use of the warm bath, a blister on the lower part of the abdomen, and emollient clysters are highly proper. Q. What takes place in a luxation of the ancle, the foot being turned upwards and out- wards ? A. When the ancle is luxated, the foot being turned upwards and outwards, the fibula is generally fractured. Q,. What change do the collateral branches undergo when a large arterial trunk is tied ? A. The collateral arteries, after a large ar- terial trunk is tied, dilate, their coats become stronger, and acquire an additional strength; they are also found to be tortuous. Q. What is meant by cicatrization ? A. Cicatrization is that process by which wounds and sores heal, or by which the forma- tion of a new skin takes place over a wound or ulcer. Q. How is castration performed ? A. Castration is performed in the following manner. The patient is to be laid on a table of convenient height. An incision is then to be made opposite the abdominal ring, and con- tinued a good way down the scrotum, in order SURGERY. 155 to lay bare the spermatic chord and testicle ; the spermatic chord thus laid bare is to be de- tached from the surrounding membranous con- nections, and then the surgeon with his finger and thumb separates the blood-vessels'from the vas deferens ; he must next pass a ligature be- tween them, and having tied the former only, he must cut through the whole chord at a quarter or half an inch from the ligature : the next thing to be done is, to dissect the testicle out from the scrotum. Should any vessels bleed, they are to be secured. The wound is then to be brought together to unite by the first intention, and the scrotum is to be supported by the T. bandage. Q. What is meant by callus ? A. Callus is the ossific matter that forms the union of a fractured bone. Q. What is the theory of the formation of callus ? A. The theory of the formation of callus is this :—from the ends of a broken bone the arteries secrete a gelatinous matter ; this very soon becomes organized by the elongation of the secreting vessel, which at length deposits bone in this new-formed animal substance, so as to produce a junction of the broken bone. Q. What are the consequences that may arise from a fractured sternum ? A. The consequences that may result from a fracture of the sternum are, the fractured portion may be driven inwards, so as to pro- duce a solid jmction of the broken bone. 156 SURGERY. Q. How many kinds of ophthalmia are there ? A. Ophthalmia is distinguished into: 1. acute ; 2. chronic; 3. purulent; 4. scrofulous ; 5. venereal; and 6. intermittent ophthalmia.31 Q. What are the cases that require the ope- ration for bronchotomy ? A. Bronchotomy has been proposed in the croup, to extract the coagulable lymph that would have caused suffocation. To remove foreign bodies that become impacted in the trachea. It has also been recommended to be performed on those recently suffocated or drowned, and in glossitis, where the tongue has so enlarged as to shut up the passage through the fauces. Q. To what is prolapsus ani generally owing ? A. Prolapsus ani is mostly owing to a debi- lity of the sphincter ani, and parts in its neigh- borhood, which serve to support that intestine, and keep it in its proper place. Q. When is paracentesis thoracis required r A. This operation is indicated when the heart or lungs are oppressed by any kind of fluid confined in the cavity of the chest. Q. What causes the water to stop suddenly, which occasionally happens in drawing off the fluid in ascites ? A. This occurrence generally takes place from a piece of omentum or intestine obstruct- ing the canula, which may be removed by in- SURGERY. 157 troducing a probe, or any other blunt instru- ment, into the canula. Q. In trepanning, a slight bleeding generally takes place from the diploe, when the saw has arrived at that part; what conclusion is to be formed when it does not take place ? A. When the saw has reached the diploe in trepanning, if an oozing of blood does not take place, an inference may be drawn that the dura mater is detached from the cranium at that part. Q. What are the symptoms that sometimes attend luxations, besides an alteration in the shape of the joint? A. In luxations some degree of inflammation takes place ; occasionally there are convulsed motions and spasmodic affections of the mus- cles, from compression of the nerves by the displaced bone. Q. How would you endeavor to unite a rup- tured tendon ? A. A ruptured tendon is to be united, by bringing the ruptured ends of the tendon as nearly in contact as possible, and keeping the muscles of the part relaxed. Q. What is the most common cause of a retention of urine ? A. The most common cause of a retention of urine, when a primary disease, is a paralytic affection of the coats of the bladder. Q. What are the causes of incontinence of urine ? A Incontinence of urine may be induced, from 13 158 SURGERY. irritation on the neck of the bladder, and from laceration of the parts in the extraction of large stones. Q. At what period in retention of urine is puncturing the bladder to be had recourse to ? A. The operation is recommended to be performed on the third or fourth day from the commencement of the total obstruction, if milder modes have decidedly failed. Q. How is the interrupted suture perform- ed ? A. The interrupted suture is performed by inserting two needles on one ligature, and in- troducing each of them at the bottom of the wound ; they are then to be pushed outwards at a proper distance from the edge of the wound, and the needles are to be taken off the ligature, which is to be pulled to bring the edges of the wound into contact. The num- ber of ligatures is to be according to the extent of the wound. Q. How is the twisted suture performed ? A. The twisted suture is performed by in- troducing two or more pins, according to the extent of the wound, through both its edges : when the edges of the wound are brought into contact upon the pins, a wax ligature is to be twisted round these, so as to form a figure of 8. This kind of suture is generally used in the operation for the hare lip. Q. How is the glover's suture performed .' A. The glover's suture is performed by pass- SURGERY. 159 ing a number of stitches in a spiral direction along the edges of the wound. Q. For what is the glover's suture used? A. The glover's suture is used for wounds of the abdomen and intestines. Q. For what is the interrupted suture used? A. The interrupted suture is made use of to bring the edges of large and deep wounds to- gether. Q. In tapping the belly, why is the linea alba preferred to the spot between the crista of the ilium and umbilicus ? A. Eecause the epigastric artery may be wounded in the latter place. Q. Should the operation for tapping the belly ever be performed on the right side be- tween the crista of the ilium and umbilicus ? A. The ascending arch of the colon is there- about, and the liver, if enlarged, may be there ; so that much caution is requisite, and it should not be performed there, if it can in the usual place. Q. When a person is about to be tapped, what, in particular, should he be desired to do? A. He should be desired to make water, that the bladder may not be wounded. Q. How does the fluid in an ascites differ from that of an ovarian dropsy ? A. The fluid in ascites is mostly serous ; that of an ovarian dropsy is mostly albumi- nous. 160 SURGERY. Q. Is the fluid of ovarian dropsy always re- moved by one opening ? A. No. The fluid being occasionally in more than one cyst, more openings are required. Q. What plan would you adopt against in- flammation of the testicle ? A. Blood-letting, both general and local; the recumbent posture; antiphlogistic diet; purgatives, and cold applications. Q. Are emetics ever given ? A. Yes; after clearing the bowels and re- ducing the constitutional excitement, an emetic is sometimes very beneficial; but it is very uncertain. PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. Q. How many classes are there in the Cul- lenian arrangement of diseases ? A. There are four classes; viz. pyrexie— neuroses—cachexie—locales. Q. How many orders are there in the class pyrexie ? A. There are five; viz. febres—phlegmasie —exanthemata—hemorrhagie—profluvia. Q. What are the divisions and genera in the order febres ? A. There are two divisions in the febres ; viz. intermittents and continued fevers. The genera of the intermittents are, quotidiana— tertiana—quartana. Those of the other divi- sion are, synocha—typhus—synochus. Q. What are the stages that each paroxysm of an intermittent is characterized by ? A. The fits of paroxysms are marked by three different stages, which are called the cold, the hot, and the sweating stages. Q. What is considered to be the exciting cause of an intermittent ? A. The effluvia arising from stagnant waters, or marshy ground, when acted upon by heat, called marsh miasmata. 13* 162 PRACTICE OF PHYSIC, Q. Are agues influenced by the time of year? A. Yes': the tertian ague is most apt to pre- vail in the spring, and the quartan in autumn. Q. What quantity of cinchona should be given during the intervals in the different species of agues ? A. In a quotidian, an ounce, at least, should be given between the fits : in a tertian, half as much more ; and a quartan, two ounces. Q. What is meant by synocha ? A. Inflammatory fever; a species of con- tinued fever, characterized by increased heat, frequent hard pulse, urine high-colored, and senses not impaired. Q. Is synocha often met with in large towns ? A. No : it is prevalent in the country ; but is more particularly the disease of cold climates. Q. What is the indication of cure in synocha ? A. To lessen the excessive vascular action, by evacuations, and the antiphlogistic regimen. Q. What disease is formed by a combination of the symptoms of synocha and typhus ? 'A. Mixed fever, orsynochus. Q. What are the genera of the order phleg- masie f A. There are eighteen genera in this order ; viz.phlogosis—ophthalmia—phrenitis—cynan- che—pneumonia—carditis —peritonitis —gas- tritis—enteritis—hepatitis—splenitis—nephri- tis — cystitis — hysteritis — rheumatismus — odontalgia—podagra—arthropuosis. PRACTICE OP PHYSIC. 163 Q. What are the eruptive fevers in the or- der exanthemata ? A. There are teE genera of ercptire diseases in the order exanthemata; vi-E. variola—vari- cella—rubeola—scarlatina—^pestis—erysipelas —miliaria—urticaria—pemphigus—aphtha. Q. How many genera has the order hemoi**- rhagie ? A. There are five genera in this order; viz. epistaxis — hemoptysis — hematemesis—he- snorrhois—menorrhagia. Q. What diseases belong to the order pro* fluvia? A. Catarrhus and dyseeteria. Q. How many orders are there in the class neuroses ? A. Four: comata -— adynamie — spasmi— vesanie. Q. What genera' belong to the order co^- matal A. There are only two in this order, viz. apoplexia and paralysis. Q. What are the diseases belonging to the order adynamie ? A. Syncope—dyspepsia—hypochondriasis— chlorosis. Q. What diseases beloiag to the order spasmi ? A. Tetanus—trismus—coavulsio—chorea^'-*- raphania — epilepsia — palpitatio — asthma — (dyspnoea—pertussis—- pyrosis—colica—cholera —diarrhoea—diabetes—hysteria—hydropho- bia ; making seventeen in all. 164 PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. Q. How many genera are there in the order vesanie ? A. There are four genera in this order ; viz. amentia—melancholia—mania—oneirodynia. Q. How many orders has the class ca- chexie ? A. Three ; viz. marcores—intumescentie—- impetigines. Q. What genera belong to marcores ? A. The genera of marcores are tabes and atrophia. Q. What diseases belong to the order intu- mescentie ? A. There are thirteen diseases that belong to this order; viz. polysarcia—pneumatosis— tympanites — physometra — anasarca—hydro- cephalus — hydrorachitis—hydrothorax—asci- tes—hydrometra — hydrocele — physconia — rachitis. Q. What are the genera in the order impe- tigines ? A. They are : scrofula—syphilis—scorbutus —elephantiasis — lepra—frambesia—trichoma —icterus. Q. What are the orders of the class locales 1 A. Locales comprehends eight orders : dys- esthesia—dysorexie— dyscinesie — apoceno- ses — epischeses — tumores — ectopie — dia- lysis. Q. What do you understand by inflammation? A. By inflammation is understood that state of a part in which it is more painful, hotter, red- der, and more turgid than it naturally is. These PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. 165 local symptoms, when present in any great degree, or when they affect very sensible parts, are attended with fever. Q. How many kinds of inflammation are there ? A. There are two kinds of inflammation : viz. the phlegmonous and the erysipelatous; each of which is divided into the acute or ac- tive, and the chronic or passive. Q. How do you distinguish phlegmonous from erysipelatous inflammation 1 A. Phlegmonous inflammation may be dis- tinguished by the tumefaction being circum- scribed, and not diffused, as in erysipelatous inflammation. The redness of phlegmon does not disappear on pressure, as in erysipelas ; nor is the sense of throbbing and darting pain so observable in erysipelas as in phlegmon. Q. How would you distinguish chronic from acute inflammation ? A. Chronic inflammation may be distinguish- ed from acute by its long continuance, the want of activity in the symptoms, and by the fever having abated, or assumed a new type. Q. What treatment does active inflamma- tion require ? A. Active inflammation requires powerful antiphlogistic measures; as blood-letting, purg- ing, diaphoretics, and a low diet. Q. Does active erysipelas give way to the same plan ? A. Active erysipelas in young and sanguine subjects, and especially in the country, gene- 166 PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. rally gives way to the same kind of treatment; but the erysipalas of large towns, being accom- panied by typhus fever, soon requires bark, acids, wine, &c. Q. What is the proper regimen and diet of inflammatory diseases called ? A. The proper regimen and diet of inflam- matory diseases is called antiphlogistic, which means against inflammation. Q. What foods and drink do you consider antiphlogistic ? A. The foods and drink which may be con- sidered as antiphlogistic are, all kinds of farina.- ceous vegetables, and the most simple fluids, as barley-water, toast and water, &c. Q. Which are the best antiphlogistic pur- gatives ? A. The best are those which are refrigerato- ry, such as the sulphate of soda, the sulphate of potassa, and the tartrate of potassa. Q. What is meant by inflammatory dia- thesis ? A. By inflammatory diathesis is meant a , te of body that favors and attends inflamma- tory diseases, such as redundancy of blood, an increased action of the heart and arteries, a ful- ness of habit, &c. Q. What kind of urine is made when active inflammation exists ?• A. When active inflammation exists, the urine voided is of a high color; and when allowed to stand, deposits the lateritious os* briekdust-like sediment. PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. 167 Q. What is the composition of the lateri- tious sediment ? A. The lateritious sediment is found to con- sist of uric acid, with phosphate of lime. Q. What character has the pulse when in- flammation is going on ? A. The pulse, when inflammation is going on, is frequent, strong, and hard. Q. What kind of delirium is most frequent in typhus fevers ? A. The delirium most frequent in typhus is not of the violent kind, and is marked by low- muttering, accompanied with stupidity. Q. Is bleeding recommended in the cure of typhoid fevers ? A. Bleeding is not recommended in typhus fevers, because it would weaken the energy of the powers necessary to life, the actions of which are already weaker than they ought to be. Q. How many species of typhus fevers are there ? A. There are four species of typhus fevers ; 1st, typhus nervosus, or nervous fever; 2d, typhus mitior, the low fever, or mild form of typhus ; 3d, the typhus gravior, the severe spe- cies of typhus fever, or putrid fever ; 4th, the typhus icterodes, or typhus with symptoms of ^aundicp. Q. What h the most common cause of typhus fevers? A. Contagion, which is a poison generated from putrid animal and vegetable substances j 168 PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. by the human body under the disease ; by con- fined animal secretions, and other sources. Q. What kind of pulse have you in ente- ritis ? A. In inflammation of the intestines, or inte- nds, the pulse is often peculiarly small and feeble and slow. Q. What are the symptoms of gastritis 1 A. Pain in the epigastric region increased under pressure, frequent vomiting, particularly when anything is taken into the stomach, oc- casionally hiccup, and a small and frequent pulse. Q. How may inflammation of the trachea terminate ? A. It seldom terminates in suppuration, and mostly in resolution or by the formation of co- agulable lymph, so as to cause suffocation in many instances. Q. What are the symptoms of trismus ? A. When trismus comes on gradually, the symptoms are : a slight stiffness is at first per- ceived at the back part of the neck, which, after a short time, becomes considerably in- creased, and at length renders the motion of the head both difficult and painful. With the rigidity of the head, there is likewise an un- easy sensation at the root of the tongue, to- gether with some difficulty in swallowing ; and a great tightness is perceived about the chest, with a pain at the sternum, shooting into the back; a stiffness next takes place about the aws, which increases to such a height, that PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. 169 the teeth become closed together, and the disease trismus or locked jaw is formed. Q. To what diseases are muscles subject ? A. Muscles are subject to morbid contrac- tion, which may be either spasmodic or perma- nent ; they are liable to inflammation, to have ab- scesses formed in them, to become gangrenous, to become flaccid, to be diminished in bulk, to have bony matter deposited in their substance, and to rheumatism. Q. What is a cramp or spasm ? A, A spasm or cramp is an involuntary con- traction of the muscular fibres, or that state of the contraction of muscles which is not sponta- neously disposed to alternate with relaxation. Q. How many species of scarlatina are there? A. Three: 1. scarlatina simplex; 2. scar- latina anginosa ; and 3. scarlatina maligna. Q. Is it proper to use cold ablution in rubeola ? A. No : if the eruption be repelled by cold, delirium, dyspnea, or diarrhoea occurs, attend- ed with considerable danger. Q. On what day of the fever does the erup- tion of measles appear 1 A. Generally on the fourth day. Q. How many species of variola are there ? A. Two; viz. variola discreta, and variola confluens. Q. What kind of fever attends confluent small-pox ? A. Typhoid or malignant fever. 14 170 PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. Q. After varicella has existed for four days, can you distinguish it from variola ? A. Yes: at this period you have often vesicles, pustules, and incrustations or scabs existing together, which distinguish its eruption from the firm and durable pustules of smali pox. Q. What kind of habits are most liable to hemoptysis ? A. Persons of a sanguineous temperament; and more frequently perhaps men than women. Q. What is the color of the blood usually coughed up in hemoptysis ? A. Generally a florid color. Q. What is the appearance of the blood brought up in hematemesis ? A. It is dark-colored or black, generally fluid, and often mixed with portions of food : sometimes it has the appearance of coffee grounds. Q. What fever accompanies phthisis ? A. Hectic fever. Q. What may be expected to take place in consequence of apoplexy not being cured ? A. If apoplexy is not removed entirely, it often leaves a state of mental imbecility behind, or terminates in hemiplegia or death. Q. What persons are most subject to thc serous form of apoplexy ? A. Those of phlegmatic temperament. Q. What are the indications of cure in dys- pepsia ? A. There are three indications of cure in PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. 171 dyspepsia: 1. to obviate the several exciting causes ; 2. to relieve urgent symptoms ; and 3. to restore the tone of the stomach, or the general system. Q. How is dropsy distinguished according to the situation of the fluid 1 A. When it is diffused through the cellular membrane it is called anasarca ; when it is deposited in the cavity of the cranium, it is termed hydrocephalus; when in the chest, hydrothorax ; when in the abdomen, ascites ; in the uterus, bydrometra; and in the testicle, hydrocele. Q. How would you form a prognosis in vertigo ? A. When it is a symptom of hysteria or any other nervous disease, it is not attended with danger, but when it takes place in consequence of an over-fulness of blood in the head, it be- comes dangerous, as it may lead to apoplexy or palsy. Q. What is the office of the liver ? A. The office of the liver is to supply a fluid called bile to the intestines, which is of the utmost importance in chylification. Q. What are the characters of healthy bile ? A. Healthy bile is of a yellow-green color, of a plastic consistence, like thin oil, and when very much agitated it froths like soap and water ; its smell is somewhat like musk, and its taste is bitter. Q. What are its uses ? A. The uses of bile are, 1st, to extricate the 172 PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. chyle from the chyme ; 2d, by its stimulus it excites the action of the intestines; 3d, it im- parts a yellow color to the feces ; 4th, it pre- vents the abundance of mucus, and acidity in the prime vie. Q. Does bile ever get into the blood ? A. Yes: bile gets into the blood when it* regular course is interrupted, as in jaundice, diseased liver, &c. Q. Enumerate the principal organic derange- ments of the liver. A. Acute and chronic inflammation ; adhe- sion to the contiguous parts ; a part of its coats. cartilaginous; induration, or scirrhus, some- times accompanied with a diminution, but much more frequently with an enlargement of its size ; tubercles on its surface, and in it& substance ; abscesses in its substance ;, hydatids in a cyst of considerable size, and hard as car- tilage ; the liver is sometimes unusually soft and pulpy, with redness. Q. How does it get into it ? A. Bile gets into the blood through the me- dium of the absorbents, which remove it from. the bile-ducts that are preternaturally distend- ed, and convey it into the blood by means of the thoracic duct. Q. What is the most common way in which, the bile is prevented passing, as it ought to do, out of its ducts into the duodenum ? A. The most common way in which bile is prevented passing through its ducts into the PRACTICE OF PHYSIC. 173 duodenum is from an obstruction in the ductus communis choledochus. Q. In what way may the ductus communis choledochus be obstructed *? A. The ductus communis may be obstructed by spasm, by a calculus, by mucus from the duodenum, and by the pressure of adjacent tumors. Q. How do you know when the bile is vitiated or unhealthy ? A. The stomach does not perform its func- tion properly, the intestines are irritated, and the feces are not of their healthy color. Q. Does a vitiated bile influence the forma- tion of the blood ? A. Yes :—vitiated bile impairs digestion ; the chyle is not properly separated from the chyme, or that which is separated is of a diseased quality; and when formed into blood, the blood is of an unhealthy nature, and improper for nutrition. Q. What are the organic derangements of the pancreas ? A. It is subject to inflammation and all it* consequences, suppuration anu abscess, gan- grene, scirrhus, enlargement of size; and ■-'.."-9*3