IFOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY 
STUDY GUIDE FOR 
DENTALMAN 
NAVY TRAINING COURSE 
NAVPERS 10675 NAVPERS 10675 
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY 
STUDY GUIDE 
FOR DENTALMAN 
A course in twenty assignments prepared under 
the supervision of the Bureau of Medicine 
and Surgery with the assistance of 
the Bureau of Naval Personnel. 
NAVY TRAINING COURSES 
EDITION 1948 
UNITED STATES 
GOVERNMENT PRINTING OFFICE 
WASHINGTON: 1948 TABLE OF CONTENTS 
Page 
Information for persons taking this course .... 1 
Assignment No. 1 —Biology 4 
Assignment No. 2 —Anatomy and physiology 
(Osteology) 7 
Assignment No. 3—Anatomy and physiology (Myology) 13 
Assignment No. 4—Anatomy and physiology (The blood 
and the blood vascular system) . 17 
Assignment No. 5 —Anatomy and physiology (The 
respiratory system and respiration) 24 
Assignment No. 6—Anatomy and physiology (The 
digestive system and digestion) . 28 
Assignment No. 7 — Anatomy and physiology (The 
nervous system) 30 
Assignment No. 8 — Bacteriology I 33 
Assignment No. 9 — Emergency dental treatment . . 37 
Assignment No. 10 —Dental charting 43 
Assignment No. 11— Dental amalgam 48 
Assignment No. 12 —Dental assisting 51 
Assignment No. 13 —Anatomy and physiology (Descrip- 
tion of the human dentition) . . 55 
Assignment No. 14 —Dental histology 63 
Assignment No. 15 —Bacteriology II 67 
Assignment No. 16 —Organization of Dental Department 
on board ship or station ... 79 
Assignment No. 17 —Oral hygiene 81 
Assignment No. 18 —Materia medica 87 
Assignment No. 19 —Oral pathology 89 
Assignment No. 20 —Dental cements 93 
Answers to assignments 97 
Qualifications for advancement in rate 104 INFORMATION FOR PERSONS TAKING THIS COURSE 
This course consists principally of Instruction Tests covering 
technical subjects in which the Manual of Qualifications for 
Advancement in Rating (Nav Pers 18068) requires that candi- 
dates for advancement to the Dentalman rate be examined. 
These tests are based on the Handbook of the Hospital Corps, 
United States Navy, 1939 edition, and Handbook for Dental 
Technologists (General), 1945 edition. The study reference is 
given at the beginning of each test. Before you may be advanced 
in rating you must have completed satisfactorily the Navy 
Training Course for the rating to which you seek advance- 
ment, as required by the Manual of Qualifications for Advance- 
ment in Rating. 
INSTRUCTION TESTS 
An “instruction test” is a series of statements covering the 
essential points of the text in the Handbook that has just been 
read and studied. After carefully reading the text of the 
assignment you should fill in the answers to every question in 
pencil from memory and then go back over the text and try to 
correct all mistakes. Next, you should check your answers with 
the correct answers, which are given in the back of the book. 
These, however, should not be referred to until you have done 
your best without that help. By following this procedure it is 
expected that you will go over each assignment three times. 
The statements, or questions, used in this text are of four 
kinds: recall (correct word), multiple-choice, true-false, and 
matching. An example of each, with instructions, is given next. 
RECALL 
Write on the line or lines to the right of each statement 
the word or words omitted from that statement: 
1. A Dentalman is a non-rated person of the group, dental 
In this case the correct word is “dental” and has, there- 
fore, been written on the line to the right of the statement. 
MULTIPLE-CHOICE 
In this type of statement several answers are suggested. 
After each question there is a space provided in which to mark 
the letter of the best answer. 
1 Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right of the statement. 
1. A Dentalman is a non-rated person of the 
(a) deck group. 
(b) medical group. 
(c) miscellaneous group. 
(d) dental group. d 
Since the correct answer is (d) the letter d has been written 
on the line at the right of the statement. 
TRUE-FALSE 
In statements of this type some are true and some are false. 
Encircle the letter T if the statement is entirely true. If any 
part of the statement is false, encircle the letter F. 
1. A Dentalman is a non-rated person of the dental groupj@F 
Since this statement is true, the letter T has been encircled. 
In statements of this type words or phrases are placed in two 
columns. Those in the left-hand column (A) are preceded by 
a letter and those in the center column (B) are followed by a 
column of blank spaces. 
In the space at the right of each item in list (B), print the 
letter of the one most closely related item in list (A). 
MATCHING 
A 
(a) The science which 
treats of life 
B 
1. Bacteriology 
c 
(b) The science which 
treats of the nature 
and properties of drugs 
(c) The science of micro- 
organisms 
2. Pharmacology 
b 
3. Biology 
a 
(d) The science of serums 
The science which treats of life (a) is biology 3; therefore, 
the letter a has been placed on the line to the right of item 
number 3. The science which treats of the nature and properties 
of drugs (b) is pharmacology 2; hence, b has been placed on 
the line to the right of 2. The science of microorganisms (c) 
is bacteriology 1; therefore, c has been placed on the line 
to the right of 1. 
2 Dentalman is a rate of the fifth pay grade. The duties are 
primarily those of equipping dental cabinets with sterile instru- 
ments, dressings, and medicines, cleaning and servicing dental 
equipment, preparing trays for impressions, boxing and pouring 
impressions, polishing simple prosthetic appliances, maintain- 
ing dental records, and performing routine clinical duties. 
The qualifications for advancement to the Dentalman rate 
are set forth in the Manual of Qualifications for Advancement in 
Rating (Nav Pers 180G8). These are reprinted in the back of 
this book. 
In addition to the technical qualifications for advancement in 
rating to Dentalman, there are certain military requirements in 
which all persons in the Navy must be qualified. The Navy being, 
first of all, a military organization, it is only natural that you be 
expected to know certain military facts which are considered 
basic. As a matter of fact, you must have successfully com- 
pleted the military requirements before you may be examined 
in the technical requirements for Dentalman. These 
military requirements for non-rated persons are found in the 
Manual of Qualifications for Advancement in Rating (Nav Pers 
18068). You may prepare for these military requirements by 
studying the General Training Course for Non-Rated Men (Nav 
Pers 10601) and The Bluejacket's Manual. 
QUALIFICATIONS 
3 ASSIGNMENT NO. 1 
BIOLOGY 
Before you answer these questions study pages 7-13 in 
Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Encircle the letter T if the statement is entirely true. If any 
part of the statement is false, encircle the F. 
1. Biology is the general study of all forms 
of life. T F 
2. The fundamental unit of life is the cell. T F 
3. The cell body consists of cytoplasm. T F 
4. The nucleus is a small body of modified 
protoplasm within the cytoplasm. T F 
5. Protoplasm is often called the physical 
basis of life. T F 
6. Simplest forms of animal and vegetable 
life consist of five cells. T F 
7. Bacteria are unicellular microorganisms. T F 
8. Amoeba is a unicellular animal organism. T F 
9. A simple cell reproduces by a compound 
and unequal division into two parts. T F 
10. Tissues are groups of specialized cells 
similar in structure and function. T F 
11. An organ is a delimited mass of highly 
specialized tissue. T F 
12. Chromatin is found within the nucleus. T F 
13. The centrosome is found within the 
nucleus. T F 
14. The plasma membrane is a thin film sur- 
rounding the cytoplasm. T F 
15. Irritability or excitability is a property of 
all animal cells. T F 
16. Protoplasm consists chiefly of proteins, 
salts, and water. T F 
17. The source of nutrition for the cells is tissue 
fluid. T F 
4 18. A single cause of irritability to a cell is 
termed a stimulus. T F 
19. The plural of “stimulus” is “stimuli”. T F 
20. In order to reproduce, the parent cell 
divides into two daughter cells. T F 
21. The daughter cells do not display the 
properties of the parent cell. T F 
22. The asters are two star shaped structures 
which develop from the centrosome when a 
cell reproduces by division. T F 
23. Mitosis is cell reproduction in which there 
are extensive preliminary changes in the 
nucleus. T F 
24. Animal cells reproduce by amitosis. T F 
25. The ovum is the parent cell in man. T F 
26. Union of the spermatozoon and the ovum 
is called fertilization. T F 
27. The fertilized ovum divides into three, six, 
nine, etc. T F 
28. Destructive metabolism is termed katab- 
olism. T F 
29. Anabolism is the process the cell uses to 
build up new protoplasm. T F 
30. Tissues in the human body are divided 
into ten main classes. T F 
31. Epithelial tissue is the supporting tissue of 
the body. T F 
32. Cuboidal, columnar, flat, squamous, and 
ciliated are divisions of connective tissue. T F 
33. The epithelium lining the blood and lymph 
vessels is spoken of as endothelium. T F 
34. The cells in epithelial tissue are joined to- 
gether by intercellular substance. T F 
35. Ciliated cells are generally columnar. T F 
36. Stratified epithelium consists of cells 
arranged in distinct layers, with one layer 
above another. T F 
37. The function of ciliated cells is to propel 
fluid or particles. T F 
5 38. Connective tissue has considerable inter- 
cellular substance. T F 
39. Fat replaces most of the cytoplasm in fat 
cells. T F 
40. Fat tissue is known as adipose tissue. T F 
41. Areolar tissue is found beneath the skin 
and between muscle fibers. T F 
42. Gristle is known to the student of histology 
as cartilaginous tissue. T F 
43. Yellow elastic fibers branching and uniting 
with each other are known as elastic 
tissue. T F 
44. Fibrous tissue is found in the inner coats 
of blood vessels. T F 
45. Fibrous tissue is found in tendons and 
ligaments. T F 
46. Lymphoid tissue consists of a loose network 
of white fibers containing lymphoid cells. T F 
47. The intercellular substance is not arranged 
in layers in osseous tissue. T F 
48. Threadlike muscle fibers held together by 
delicate connective tissue make up muscle 
tissue. T F 
49. Irritability, the response to stimulation, 
is not a property of muscle tissue. T F 
50. Extensibility or the power to be stretched 
is not a property of muscle tissue. T F 
51. Striated muscles can be controlled by the 
will. T F 
52. The muscles of hollow organs are non- 
striated. T F 
53. Non-striated muscles cannot be controlled 
by the will. T F 
54. Blood and lymph may be considered as 
tissue. T F 
55. The most highly specialized tissue in the 
body is nerve tissue. T F 
56. Groups of organs which act together and . 
have a common function are called 
systems. T F 
6 ASSIGNMENT NO. 2 
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 
OSTEOLOGY 
Before you answer these questions study pages 14-24 in 
Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
57. The study of the structure of bones is 
(a) biology. 
(b) anatomy. 
(c) myology. 
(d) osteology. 
58. The study of the joints and articulations 
is called 
(a) hematology. 
(b) zoology. 
(c) arthrology. 
(d) physiography. 
59. The bony framework of the body is 
termed the 
(a) skeleton. 
(b) outline. 
(c) sympathetic system. 
(d) structure. 
60. Osseous tissue is commonly called 
(a) muscle. 
(b) bone. 
(c) fat. 
(d) cartilage. 
61. The bones of the wrist and ankle are 
known as 
(a) long bones. 
(b) short bones. 
(c) flat bones. 
(d) irregular bones. 
7 62. The skeleton of the adult is made up of 
(a) 150 bones. 
(b) 175 bones. 
(c) 206 bones. 
(d) 300 bones. 
63. The number of bones in an upper extrem- 
ity is 
(a) 64. 
(b) 78. 
(c) 85. 
(d) 105. 
64. The bones of the lower extremities 
number 
(a) 62. 
(b) 78. 
(c) 85. 
(d) 101. 
65. A process is known as 
(a) a prominence. 
(b) an outcropping. 
(c) an articulation. 
(d) a cusp. 
66. A sinus is a 
(a) blind duct. 
(b) hole. 
(c) cavity within a bone. 
(d) foramen. 
67. The irregular lines which unite the flat 
bones of the skull are 
(a) cranial canals. 
(b) sinuses. 
(c) sutures. 
(d) crests. 
68. In life, the brain is held in the 
(a) facial cavity. 
(b) cranial cavity. 
(c) sella turcica. 
(d) occipital foramen. 
8 69. The upper wall of the cranial cavity is 
called the 
(a) vault. 
(b) nave. 
(c) base of the skull. 
(d) foramen magnum. 
70. The large opening in the base of the skull 
is called the 
(a) nutrient foramen. 
(b) foramen ovale. 
(c) foramen spinosum. 
(d) foramen magnum. 
71. The temporal fossa is located 
(a) just behind the orbital cavity. 
(b) below the foramen magnum. 
(c) at the junction of the two parietal 
bones. 
(d) above the nasal cavity. 
72. The number of bones in the face is 
(a) 10. 
(b) 15. 
(c) 20. 
(d) 25. 
73. The horseshoe shaped bone of the jaw is 
the 
(a) mandible. 
(b) ramus. 
(c) temporal. 
(d) coronoid process. 
74. The number of bones in the spinal 
column, including the sacrum, coccyx, 
and true vertebrae, is 
(a) 16. 
(b) 18. 
(c) 26. 
(d) 28. 
9 75. The lower extremity of the spinal column 
is the 
(a) coccyx. 
(b) sacrum. 
(c) lumbar vertebrae. 
(d) sacral vertebrae. 
76. The principal organs of circulation and 
respiration are contained in the 
(a) thorax. 
(b) coccyx. 
(c) sternum. 
(d) abdomen. 
77. The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process 
are all parts of the 
(a) ribs. 
(b) sternum. 
(c) back part of the chest wall. 
(d) thorax. 
78. The number of ribs is 
(a) 5 pairs. 
(b) 12 pairs. 
(c) 16 pairs. 
(d) 8 pairs. 
79. The two lowest ribs are called floating 
ribs because they are 
(a) free at both ends. 
(b) free at one end. 
(c) attached in the middle. 
(d) attached at both ends. 
80. The collar bone is known anatomically 
as the 
(a) humerus. 
(b) manubrium sterni. 
(c) clavicle. 
(d) scapula. 
81. The scapula is 
(a) flat and triangular in shape. 
(b) curved and round in shape. 
(c) rectangular in shape. 
(d) square in shape. 
10 82. The head of the humerus articulates 
with the 
(a) glenoid cavity of the scapula. 
(b) olecranon process of the radius, 
fc) symphysis pubis. 
(d) lateral epicondyles. 
83. The ulna and radius make up the 
(a) thigh. __ 
(b) hip. 
(c) forearm. 
(d) leg. 
84. In each finger there are 
(a) 2 phalanges. 
(b) 3 phalanges. 
(c) 5 phalanges. 
(d) 7 phalanges. 
85. The bone of the thigh is called the 
(a) tibia. 
(b) femur. 
(c) fibula. 
(d) patella. 
86. The knee bone is anatomically known 
as the 
(a) patella. 
(b) quadriceps. 
(c) tibia. 
(d) lesser trochanter. 
87. The tarsal bones are located in the 
(a) knee joint. 
(b) junction of the femur with the tibia. 
(c) ankle. 
(d) hand. 
88. Synovial fluid serves to 
(a) lubricate the joints of the skeleton. 
(b) maintain the osmotic pressure. 
(c) sheath the phalanges. 
(d) act as an insulating medium. 
11 89. Bones entering into a joint are held to- 
gether by strong bands of fibrous tissue 
called 
(a) ligaments. 
(b) epithelial tissue. 
(c) cul de sac. 
(d) synovial discs. 
12 ASSIGNMENT NO. 3 
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 
MYOLOGY 
Before you answer these questions study pages 24-28, in 
Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 edition, 
and pages 87-91, in Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 
1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
90. The study of the structure and functions 
of muscles is 
(a) biology. 
(b) myology. 
(c) embryology. 
(d) hematology. 
91. Muscles vary in shape according to 
(a) the work they do. 
(b) the nature of their nerve impulse. 
(c) whether they are located in the 
upper or lower extremity. 
(d) the racial characteristics of the 
body. 
92. Muscles form approximately 
(a) 20% - 30% of the body weight. 
(b) 40% - 50% of the body weight. 
(c) G0% - 70% of the body weight. 
(d) 70% - 80% of the body weight. 
93. The fixed attachment of a skeletal muscle 
is known as the 
(a) origin. 
(b) insertion. 
(c) supination point. 
(d) abutment. 
13 94. The attachment of a skeletal muscle which 
moves is the 
(a) abutment. 
(b) origin. 
(c) insertion. 
(d) supination point. 
95. When tendons are flat and thin, their 
name is 
(a) perimysium. 
(b) aponeuroses. 
(c) fasciae. 
(d) sheaths. 
96. Tendons unite with the periosteum of 
bones to form 
(a) attachments of muscles. 
(b) a thin perichondrium. 
(c) a sub-periosteal layer. 
(d) elastic fibrous tissue. 
97. Muscles are kept in position and place 
during movement by 
(a) fasciae. 
(b) tendons. 
(c) ligaments. 
(d) the sarcolemma. 
98. Rigor mortis is 
(a) a state of muscle elasticity. 
(b) a stiffening of the muscles after 
death. 
(c) the act of deglutition. 
(d) a normal muscle tone. 
99. The insertion of the masseter muscle is 
in the 
(a) anterior border of the symphysis 
mentis. 
(b) inferior border of the body of the 
mandible. 
(c) external surface of the ramus of 
the mandible. 
(d) sigmoid notch. 
14 100. The number of muscles of mastication is 
(a) four. 
(b) five. 
(c) six. 
(d) seven. 
101. The most powerful muscle of mastication 
is the 
(a) temporal. 
(b) buccinator. 
(c) masseter. 
(d) internal pterygoid. 
102. The origin of the temporal muscle is in the 
(a) zygomatic arch. 
(b) frontal process. 
(c) infraorbital ridge. 
(d) temporal fossa and fascia. 
103. The particular nerve which supplies the 
temporal muscle is known as the 
(a) auditory. 
(b) vagus. 
(c) trigeminal. 
(d) olfactory. 
104. The external pterygoid muscle arises from 
(a) two heads. 
(b) three heads. 
(c) four heads. 
(d) five heads. 
105. The buccinator muscle arises from the 
(a) alveolar arches of the maxillae 
and mandible. 
(b) inner surface of the pyramidal 
process of the palate bone. 
(c) lateral pterygoid plate. 
(d) inferior border of the body of the 
mandible. 
106. The biceps arises by 
(a) two heads. 
(b) three heads. 
(c) four heads. 
(d) five heads. 
15 107. The diaphragm separates the 
(a) thoracic and abdominal cavities. 
(b) oral cavity from the esophagus. 
(c) gall bladder from the kidney. 
(d) left lobe of the lung from the right 
lung. 
108. The principal action of the temporal 
muscle is to 
(a,) open the jaw. 
(b) close the jaw. 
(c) move the temporal bone. 
(d) aid in the closing of the eye. 
109. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is found 
in the 
(a) thigh. 
(b) leg. 
(c) chest. 
(d) neck. 
110. The muscle which flexes the head laterally 
and rotates it to the opposite side is the 
(a) internal pterygoid. 
(b) subscapular. 
(c) sternocleidomastoid. 
(d) deltoid. 
111. The biceps brachii muscle is located on 
(a) the femur. 
(b) the first rib. 
(c) the front of the arm. 
(d) the inner aspect of the leg. 
16 ASSIGNMENT NO. 4 
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 
THE BLOOD AND THE BLOOD VASCULAR SYSTEM 
Before you answer these questions study pages 29-46, in 
Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 edition. 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
112. Blood is kept circulating by 
(a) force of the heart beat. 
(b) peristaltic action. 
(c) opening and closing of the arterial 
valves. 
(d) capillary action. 
113. Normally, blood is 
(a) acid. 
(b) alkaline. 
(c) neutral. 
114. The average adult weighing 160 pounds 
has 
(a) 4 quarts of blood. 
(b) 5 quarts of blood. 
(c) 6 quarts of blood. 
(d) 7 quarts of blood. 
115. Oxidation in all tissues produces 
(a) hydrogen. 
(b) nitrogen. 
(c) carbon dioxide. 
(d) oxygen. 
116. Muscular activity produces 
(a) lactic acid. 
(b) phenols. 
(c) enterokinase. 
(d) antiprotease. 
17 117. Buffers aid in maintaining 
(a) the acid-base equilibrium. 
(b) the muscle tone. 
(c) the production of lactic acid. 
(d) neutral reaction of the blood. 
118. Neutralization of acids in the blood is 
accomplished by 
(a) chlorides. 
(b) bicarbonates. 
(c) sulfates. 
(d) sulfites. 
119. Hemoglobin gives up its chlorine in the 
(a) pancreas. _________ 
(b) liver. 
(c) lungs. 
(d) kidneys. 
120. The respiratory center is stimulated by 
(a) an increase in carbon dioxide. 
(b) the vegetative nervous system. 
(c) alkaline content of the blood. 
(d) nitrogen content of the blood. 
121. Elimination of thte acids from the body is 
largely accomplished through the function 
of the 
(a) lungs. 
(b) spleen. 
(c) kidneys. 
(d) alkali reserve. 
122. The normal reaction of the urine is 
(a) alkaline. 
(b) neutral. 
(c) acid. 
123. Acid is usually eliminated in the form of 
(a) acid carbonates. 
(b) acid fluorides. 
(c) acid phosphates. 
(d) acid sulfates. 
18 124. Antitoxins neutralize 
(a) poisons produced by bacteria. 
(b) the action of the agglutinins. 
(c) hormone action. 
(d) the action of precipitins. 
125. The solid or semi-solid matter found in an 
abscess is called 
(a) desquamated epithelial cells. 
(b) pus. 
(c) antigens. 
(d) oxidase. 
126. Excessive loss of blood in injuries is pre- 
vented by 
(a) increase in the heart beat. 
(b) venous stasis. 
(c) clotting. 
(d) thrombosis. 
127. In the adult male, red blood cells number 
about 
(a) 2,000,000 per cubic mm. ____ 
(b) 3,000,000 per cubic mm. 
(c) 4,000,000 per cubic mm. 
(d) 5,000,000 per cubic mm. 
128. The red color of erythrocytes is due to 
(a) heparin. 
(b) cephalin. 
(c) hemoglobin. 
(d) color inherent in the cell wall. 
129. Oxygen is carried from the lungs to the 
body tissues in the form of 
(a) carbon monoxide hemoglobin. 
(b) oxyhemoglobin. 
(c) carbon dioxide hemoglobin. 
(d) monohemoglobin. 
130. The adult red cells are produced in the 
(a) kidney. 
(b) liver. 
(c) red bone marrow. 
(d) spleen. 
19 131. White blood cells number 
(a) 4,000-5,000 per cubic mm. 
(b) 5,000-6,000 per cubic mm. 
(e) 6,000-8,000 per cubic mm. 
(d) 9,000-10,000 per cubic mm. 
132. Phagocytosis is the process of 
(a) ingesting and destroying bacteria. 
(b) formation of leucocytes. 
(c) destruction of red cells. 
(d) digesting fats in the blood. 
133. The heart is located 
(a) behind and to the right of the 
thoracic cavity. 
(b) in the front and center of the 
thoracic cavity. 
(c) in the folds of the pleura. 
(d) at the base of the manubrium 
sterni. 
134. The heart of an adult is about the size of a 
(a) cantaloupe 
(b) one year old child’s head 
(c) closed fist. 
(d) lemon. 
135. The pericardium is the 
(a) fibro-serous membrane enclosing the 
heart. 
(b) division of the ventricles of the 
heart. 
(c) apex of the heart. 
(d) base of the heart. 
136. The pericardial fluid 
(a) oils the auriculoventricular valves. 
(b) is injected into the chordae tendinae. 
(c) lubricates the surfaces of the peri- 
cardium. 
(d) circulates through the auricles. 
20 137. The receiving chamber of the heart is 
known as the 
(a) antechamber. 
(b) porte cochere. 
(c) auricle. 
(d) petrous portion. 
138. Ventricles of the heart are 
(a) muscles in the apex. . 
(b) muscles in the base. 
(c) ejecting chambers. 
(d) oxygenating spaces. 
139. The cavities of the heart number 
(a) four. 
(b) five. 
(c) six. 
(d) seven. 
140. The contractions and dilatations of the 
heart in a normal adult occur normally at 
the rate of 
(a) 65 per minute. 
(b) 70 per minute. 
(c) 72 per minute. 
(d) 85 per minute. 
141. Contraction of the heart is known as 
(a) apnea. 
(b) aphasia. 
(c) anorexia. 
(d) systole. 
142. Dilatation of the heart is know as 
(a) diastole. 
(b) peristalsis. 
(c) mononucleosis. 
(d) a period of work. 
143. The stethoscope is used to detect 
(a) sugar in the urine. 
(b) infection of the middle ear. 
(c) heart sounds. 
(d) lesions of the pharynx. 
21 144. The normal heart produces 
(a) two distinct sounds. 
(b) three distict sounds. 
(c) five distinct sounds. 
(d) seven distinct sounds. 
145. Arteries consist of 
(a) two layers. 
(b) three layers. 
(c) five layers. 
(d) seven layers. 
146. The blood passes from the arteries to the 
veins by means of 
(a) capillaries. 
(b) venules. 
(c) small arteries. 
(d) osmosis. 
147. The hollow collapsible tubes that carry 
blood to the heart are 
(a) the ascending aorta. 
(b) the right and left coronary arteries. 
(c) veins. 
(d) capillaries. 
148. When the external iliac artery enters the 
thigh it is known as the 
(a) anterior and posterior tibial. 
(b) femoral artery. 
(c) internal iliac artery. 
(d) the inguinal artery. 
149. Veins differ from arteries in that they 
(a) are thinner and contain valves. 
(b) are more muscular. 
(c) have five coats. 
(d) are more numerous. 
Encircle the letter T if the statement is entirely true. If 
any part of the statement is false, encircle the F. 
150. Fibrinogen is a normal constituent of T F 
lymph. 
151. Fibrinogen by itself is very active. T F 
22 152. A person having the disease hemophilia is T F 
known as a hemophiliac. 
153. When water is extracted from red blood T F 
cells they become crenated. 
154. White blood cells are non-nucleated. T F 
155. Leucocytes have the power of passing T F 
through the walls of blood vessels into 
the surrounding tissues. 
15C. The different types of white blood cells T F 
are recognized under the microscope by 
their reactions to stains. 
157. The blood vascular system consists of the T F 
heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins. 
158. The heart is a hollow muscular organ. T F 
159. The base of the heart points downward T F 
and forward. 
160. The myocardium is the muscle tissue of T F 
the heart. 
161. The mitral valve has three triangular T F 
shaped cusps. 
162. During a complete cardiac cycle the blood T F 
is received in and ejected from the heart 
cavities. 
163. The semilunar valves in the ventricle open T F 
upon ejection of the blood. 
164. The auricles are filled while the ventricles T F 
are relaxed. 
165. Lymph is a fluid rich in red blood cells. T F 
166. The tissues and organs of the body are T F 
bathed in lymph. 
167. Lymph serves as a medium for carrying T F 
nourishment and oxygen to the tissues 
and waste products from them. 
168. The flow of lymph in the lymph-vascular T F 
system is always toward the tissues. 
23 ASSIGNMENT NO. 5 
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 
THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM AND RESPIRATION 
Before you answer these questions study pages 46-51 in 
Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
169. The process of gaseous exchange between 
a living organism and the medium in 
which it lives is known as 
(a) endomembranous formation. 
(b) pretracheal development. 
(c) respiration. 
(d) mastication. 
170. Of the gases in the air, the one most 
vital to animal life is 
(a) helium. 
(b) neon. 
(c) nitrogen. 
(d) oxygen. 
171. One of the waste products of metabolism 
is 
(a) carbon dioxide. 
(b) carbon monoxide. 
(c) oxygen. 
(d) desquamated squamous 
epithelium. 
172. In the process of respiration carbon 
dioxide is exchanged for 
(a) nitrogen. 
(b) helium. 
(c) oxygen. 
(d) methane. 
24 173. Gaseous exchange is accomplished in the 
air breathing vertebrates by means of 
(a) gills or lungs. 
(b) the nasal chambers. 
(c) the pulmonary pleura. 
(d) the act of deglutition. 
174. The normal entrances for air to the res- 
piratory tract are the 
(a) venous sinuses. 
(b) nasal chambers. 
(c) trachea. 
(d) bronchi. 
175. The inspired air is warmed and mois- 
tened by 
(a) the mucous membrane in the nasal 
cavities. 
(b) the antrum of Highmore. 
(c) the cilia of the respiratory mem- 
branes. 
(d) the olfactory glands. 
176. The nasal chambers are separated by the 
(a) oscalcis. 
(b) nasal septum. 
(c) buccal mucous membrane. 
(d) ethmoidal air cells. 
177. The nasal chambers open posteriorly 
into the 
(a) larynx. 
(b) trachea. 
(c) pharynx. 
(d) anterior faucial pillars. 
178. The passageway for air between the 
nasal chambers and the larynx is the 
(a) pharynx. 
(b) hyoid. 
(c) epiglottis. 
(d) mouth. 
25 179. The larynx is commonly known as the 
(a) Adam’s apple. 
(b) organ of voice. 
(c) costal pleura. 
(d) epiglottis. 
180. The larynx opens above into the pharynx 
and below into the 
(a) thyroid space. 
(b) trachea. 
(c) epiglottis. 
(d) nasal chambers. 
181. The so-called Adam’s apple is the 
(a) cricoid cartilage. ________ 
(b) inguinal ring. 
(c) thyroid cartilage. 
(d) oesophagus. 
182. The right lung has 
(a) two lobes. 
(b) three lobes. 
(c) four lobes. 
(d) five lobes. 
183. The left lung has 
(a) two lobes. 
(b) three lobes. 
(c) four lobes. 
(d) five lobes. 
184. The rib surface of the lung is 
(a) biconcave. 
(b) convex. 
(c) angular. 
(d) straight. 
185. The circulation that brings the blood 
from the right heart to the lungs and 
returns it to the left heart is known as 
the 
(a) pleural circulation. 
(b) pulmonary circulation. 
(c) pericardial circulation. 
(d) visceral circulation. 
26 186. The lining of the thoracic cavity and 
envelopment of the lungs is called the 
(a) pleura. 
(b) pericardial sac. 
(c) alveoli. 
(d) alveolar sheath. 
187. The pleura covers the 
(a) lungs. 
(b) heart. 
(c) large intestine. 
(d) stomach. 
188. External respiration takes place in the 
(a) nasal cavities. 
(b) mouth. 
(c) lungs. 
(d) bronchus. 
189. Internal respiration takes place 
(a) between the blood and tissues. 
(b) between the heart and lungs. 
(c) between the auricle and ventricle. 
(d) in the hilum of the left lung. 
27 ASSIGNMENT NO. 6 
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 
THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM AND DIGESTION 
Before you answer these questions study pages 51-61 in 
Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Write on the line or lines to the right of each statement the 
word or words omitted from that statement. 
190. The conversion of food substances into 
simpler substances so that they may be 
readily absorbed is known as . _ 
191. The dividing of food into small particles 
by means of the teeth is called . 
192. The transfer of food from the mouth to 
the stomach is called (or 
swallowing). 
193. The term given to the act of expelling 
faeces from the rectum is . 
194. The continuous tube extending from the 
mouth to the anus and composed of the 
mouth, pharynx, aesophagus, stomach, 
and small and large intestine is called the 
195. The mouth opens posteriorly into the 
196. The muscular organ occupying the 
floor of the mouth is called the . 
197. The largest cavity in the body con- 
taining the stomach, liver, intestine, 
etc. is called the cavity. 
198. The continuous smooth membrane cover- 
ing the wall of the abdominal cavity and 
the surfaces of the organs within it is the 
28 199. The hollow muscular organ, which lies 
in the abdomen, connected with the 
aesophagus above and the duodenum 
at its other extremity is called the . 
200. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are 
parts of the . 
201. The caecum and ascending colon are 
parts of the . 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
202. A bolus of food is 
(a) food ready for deglutition. 
(b) food ready for mastication. 
(c) food ready for defaecation. 
(d) food ready for hepatic action. 
203. In the stomach the food is thoroughly 
mixed with 
(a) pancreatic juice. 
(b) hepatic juice. 
(c) gastric juice. 
(d) renal juice. 
204. Indigestible waste material is expelled 
from the body by the act of 
(a) deglutition. 
(b) mastication. 
(c) adsorption. 
(d) defaecation. 
29 ASSIGNMENT NO. 7 
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 
THE NERVOUS SYSTEM 
Before you answer these questions study pages 71-84 in 
Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
205. The unicellular organism which is the 
lowest form of animal life is known as the 
(a) Metazoon. 
(b) culex. 
(c) spermatozoon. 
(d) Amoeba. 
206. One of the following organisms possesses 
no distinctive form of nervous system 
(a) Metazoon. 
(b) lumbricus. 
(c) stomoxys. 
(d) Amoeba. 
207. The weight of the brain is about 
(a) ten ounces. 
(b) one pound. 
(c) one and one-half pounds. 
(d) three pounds. 
208. The outer layer of the brain is made up of 
(a) white matter. 
(b) gray matter. 
(c) the arachnoid. 
(d) red matter. 
209. The gray matter is composed largely of 
(a) nerve cells. 
(b) nerve fibers. 
(c) axone fibers. 
(d) spinal nerve endings. 
30 210. The white matter consists principally of 
(a) nerve fibers. 
(b) nerve cells. 
(c) axone fibers. 
(d) afferent nerves. 
211. The seats of reason, intelligence, will, 
memory, and all of the higher emotions 
are found in the 
(a) cerebellum. 
(b) cerebrum. 
(c) angular gyrus. 
(d) pons. 
212. All impressions passing between the brain 
and the spinal cord are conducted by the 
(a) cerebrum. 
(b) angular gyrus. 
(c) medulla oblongata. 
(d) cerebellum. 
213. Reflex centers for regulating respiration, 
accelerating heart action, and main- 
taining vascular tone are found in the 
(a) cerebrum. 
(b) medulla oblongata. 
(c) spinal cord. 
(d) fissure of Rolando. 
214. The olfactory nerve has for its function 
(a) movements of the eye. 
(b) facial expression. 
(c) sense of smell. 
(d) sense of hearing. 
215. The outstanding physiological property 
of nerve fiber is its 
(a) elasticity. 
(b) conductivity. 
(c) contractibility. 
(d) regenerative ability. 
31 216. When response to stimulation occurs 
without intervening consciousness it is 
termed 
(a) receptor activity. 
(b) reflex action. 
(c) lumbar action. 
(d) sacral action. 
217. The corneal reflex is an example of the 
(a) complex reflex. 
(b) spreading reflex. 
(c) simple reflex. 
(d) continuous reflex. ASSIGNMENT NO. 8 
BACTERIOLOGY I 
Before you answer these questions study pages 372-373 and 
899-904 in Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 1939 
edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Write on the line or lines to the right of each statement the 
word or words omitted from that statement. 
218. The unit of measurement used in deter- 
mining the size of microscopic bodies is 
the . 
219. The bacteria which are not harmful to 
the body are called . 
220. Bacteria which cause disease are called 
221. Bacteria which grow only in the presence 
of oxygen are called . 
222. Bacteria which grow only in the absence 
of oxygen are called . 
223. Fractional sterilization is employed to 
kill bacteria developing from . _____ 
224. Substances used to color bacteria are 
called . 
225. Examination of serum from sores on the 
genitalia to detect Treponema pallidum 
is best done by the method known as 
226. A person who, although symptomless 
himself of the disease, harbors and dis- 
seminates the specific infectious agent of 
the disease is known as a . 
33 Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
227. Culture media for pathogenic organisms 
should 
(a) make the bacteria feel at home. 
(b) simulate conditions present in the 
body. 
(c) give bacteria exercise by allowing 
them to swim around. 
(d) slow down the growth of bacteria. 
228. In the laboratory bacteria are grown on 
culture media. The basis of most 
media is 
(a) sugar, litmus milk, and starch. 
(b) potato. 
(c) bouillon or broth which is a solu- 
tion of meat juice, salt, and peptone 
in water and having a definite degree 
of acidity. 
229. Most bacteria of dental interest are 
grown at a constant temperature of 
(a) 90 deg. F. 
(b) 37.5 deg. F. 
(c) 98 deg. C. 
(d) 37.5 deg. C. 
230. Bacteria reproduce by 
(a) transverse fission. 
(b) sporogeny. 
(c) somatogenesis. 
(d) spontaneous generation. 
231. Pus, bacteria, blood, etc. thinly spread 
on a slide for examination under a micro- 
scope is called a 
(a) smear. 
(b) spread. 
(c) film. 
(d) slip. 
34 232. Culture media must be kept tightly- 
closed 
(a) to prevent evaporation. 
(b) to keep bacteria from growing too 
fast. 
(c) to prevent contamination from 
the air. 
(d) to prevent infection of technicians. 
233. The period between the time a person is 
first infected with a disease and the 
appearance of symptoms is known as the 
(a) incubation period. 
(b) lag phase. 
(c) latent period. 
(d) immune phase. 
234. Immunity present from birth is known as 
(a) passive immunity. 
(b) inherent immunity. 
(c) acquired immunity. 
(d) specific immunity. 
235. When antibodies are produced in one 
animal and the serum of that animal is 
injected into another to produce immu- 
nity it is known as 
(a) passive immunity. 
(b) inherent immunity. 
(c) general immunity. 
(d) active immunity. 
236. When the body is infected by disease, 
or where the causative organisms of a 
disease are injected into the body, sub- 
stances are produced which combat that 
disease leading to cure and, in some cases, 
to the production of prolonged immunity 
to that disease. This type of immunity 
is known as 
(a) passive immunity. 
(b) inherent immunity. 
(c) active immunity. 
(d) general immunity. 
35 In the space at the right of each item in list B, print the letter 
of the one most closely related item in list A. 
List A 
237. a. Passing of slide 
through a flame 
b. Stains used to 
color bacteria 
c. Instrument used 
in making a smear 
d. Bacteria spread in a 
thin film on a slide 
e. Organism stained 
violet using Gram’s 
method 
f. Acid fast organisms 
List B 
1. Methylene blue, 
carbol fuchsin 
2. Smear 
3. Wire loop 
4. Fixing a smear 
5. Gram-positive 
organism. 
Bacteria are classified according to certain standards. From 
the items listed below select the five on which classification is 
based. List your answers in the spaces at the right. 
238. a. Appearance of the colonies 1. 
b. Rate of multiplication 2._ 
c. Color when stained by appropriate 
methods 3. 
d. Arrangement of the individual cells 4. 
e. Ability to produce chlorophyl 5. 
f. Ability to withstand boiling 
g. Shape of the individual cells 
h. Power of motion 
i. Life expectancy 
j. Ability to move by “Brownian move- 
ment” 
k. Ability to reproduce 
36 ASSIGNMENT NO. 9 
EMERGENCY DENTAL TREATMENT 
Before you answer these questions study pages 369-376 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists (General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
239. When a patient presents himself for 
emergency dental treatment it is first 
necessary to establish the diagnosis. 
The first thing you must do, therefore, is 
(a) call the dental officer. 
(b) question the patient. 
(c) set up the bracket table. 
(d) examine the patient’s mouth. 
2-40. One of the most common causes of den- 
tal pain is 
(a) infection and/or inflammation of 
the tooth pulp. 
(b) pulpal necrosis or abcess. 
(c) jaw fracture. 
(d) Vincent’s infection. 
241. In the case of dental abcess caused by 
death of the pulp in a carious tooth, 
sedative medication applied to the cavity 
usually 
(a) relieves the pain immediately. 
(b) docs little or no good. 
(c) inhibits the formation of gases. 
(d) encourages the formation of gases. 
242. Slightly tender gums which bleed easily 
when the teeth are brushed lead to a 
diagnosis of 
(a) stomatitis. 
(b) pyorrhea. 
(c) trench mouth. 
(d) gingivitis. 
37 243. A patient has an aching tooth after loss 
or breakage of a filling; painful but not 
severe. Proper treatment includes 
(a) removal of decalcified dentin. 
(b) placing sedative dressing of zinc 
oxide and eugenol. 
(c) placing dressing of cotton pellet 
with dental glycerite. 
(d) sealing cavity with gutta percha. 
244. Pericoronitis usually occurs in 
(a) third molar areas. 
(b) a “dry-socket.” 
(c) recent extraction sockets. 
(d) erupted deciduous teeth. 
245. The so-called “setting” of fractured jaws is 
best termed 
(a) conduction. 
(b) reduction. 
(c) induction. 
(d) production. 
246. Rubbing the bone fragments together 
in a fractured jaw is both painful and ill- 
advised. This condition is called 
(a) abrasion. 
(b) attrition. 
(c) crepitus. 
(d) precipice. 
247. Pericoronitis is very often 
(a) painful. 
(b) painless. 
(c) of no consequence. 
38 Select the best answers to each problem and write their 
letters on the line at the right. Each problem has more than 
one correct answer. 
248. The dental technician rendering any type 
of emergency dental treatment should 
advise the patient that the treatment 
given is of a temporary nature only. 
He also should instruct patient 
(a) to return for further treatment. 
(b) to consult a dental officer at the 
earliest opportunity. 
(c) to take his turn on the waiting list. 
(d) to apply an aspirin tablet to area 
if pain persists. 
(e) to remain in bunk and use ice pack. 
249. In the case of a pulp abscess or suppurat- 
ing pulpitis the tooth should be 
(a) sealed with a sedative dressing. ___ 
(b) allowed to remain open for drainage. 
(c) extracted. 
(d) cleansed of debris and soft dentin. 
(e) medicated with cotton pellet and 
dentalone. 
250. A patient has fractured a corner of an 
upper central incisor. There is slight 
bleeding from the pulp and it is very 
painful. Your treatment should include 
(a) making a roentgenogram if an 
x-ray machine is available. 
(b) referring him to the dental officer. 
(c) applying celluloid cap of tin oxide 
and eugenol paste. 
(d) covering the tooth well with gauze 
and dentalone. 
(e) cauterizing the pulp and then 
leaving it open. 
39 251. Treatment of “bleeding gums”, when 
actual infection is not evident, is best 
accomplished by 
(a) applying dental astringent to gums. 
(b) prophylaxis. 
(c) massaging gums. 
(d) suggesting special tooth paste. 
(e) using mouth washes. 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
252. If pain seems to come from the teeth look 
for 
(a) a cavity. 
(b) gingivitis. 
(c) a dry-socket. 
(d) pericoronitis. 
253. If a cavity exists where a patient com- 
plains of pain only when eating sweets 
and/or cold foods the tooth is probably 
involved with 
(a) simple caries. 
(b) abscess. 
(c) pericoronitis. 
(d) periodontitis. 
254. When a carious tooth with an exposed 
pulp does not respond to vitality tests 
(heat, cold, electrical), the cavity should 
be 
(a) left open. 
(b) sealed with sedative dressing. 
(c) cauterized. 
(d) sterilized. 
40 255. When an abscess is suspected at the 
tip of a root and there is swelling of the 
gum in this area, proper procedure is to 
(a) apply medicament. 
(b) refer patient to dental officer im- 
mediately. 
(c) incise and drain abscess. 
(d) grind the occlusion. 
250. In simple gingivitis the gums are 
(a) light pink. 
(b) inflamed. 
(c) ulcerated. 
(d) necrotic. 
257. Pain due to loss of a filling may often be 
relieved by 
(a) sedative dressing. 
(b) relieving occlusal stresses. 
(c) warm saline mouth washes. 
(d) cold application. 
Encircle the letter T if the statement is entirely true. If any 
part of the statement is false, encircle the letter F. 
258. In emergency treatment for pain caused 
by dental caries, the soft decalcified 
dentin should be removed from the 
cavity only enough to allow for sedative 
medication. T F 
259. When a patient complains of toothache 
which is severe and constant the cavity 
probably involves an exposure of the 
pulp. T F 
200. Enamel contains sensory nerves. T F 
201. The pulp chamber of a tooth is con- 
tinuous with the root canal. T F 
202. The blood supply of a tooth is derived 
from both the vessels of the periodontal 
membrane and the apical bone. T F 
203. In pulpal abscesses the periodontal mem- 
brane is alwavs inflamed. T F 
41 264. Toothache is most frequently caused by 
inflammation of the dental pulp. T F 
265. Decay progresses more rapidly in enamel 
than in dentin. T F 
266. Chisels and hatchets are preferred for 
the removal of dental decay. T F 
267. Dental engine and round burs are indi- 
cated for removing carious dentin. T F 
268. Spoon excavators may be used to cleave 
enamel. T F 
269. Cotton roll holders can be used only on 
the lower jaw. T F 
270. A tooth with an acute periapical abscess 
is tender to percussion. T F 
271. A draining abscess (when a fistula is 
present) is seldom painful. T F 
272. Sedative dressings for treatment of “dry- 
socket” should be packed tightly. T F 
273. The dental officer should be informed at 
all times of any dental emergency treat- 
ment performed by the dental technician. T F 
274. Gutta percha or temporary stopping is 
effective in relieving pain when placed in 
a cavity. T F 
275. It is often experienced that a patient may 
point to a perfectly sound tooth and state 
that it aches severely. T F 
276. In most cases a “gum boil” indicates 
the presence of a dead pulp or abscess 
in a nearby tooth. T F 
277. Vincent’s infection is a self curing disease. T F 
278. Osteomyelitis of the jaw requires the 
immediate sendees of a dental officer. T F 
279. Stimulants should be avoided in cases of 
post-extraction hemorrhage. T F 
280. In periapical abscesses the periodontal 
membrane is often inflamed. T F 
42 ASSIGNMENT NO. 10 
DENTAL CHARTING 
Before you answer these questions study pages 18-31 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Fill in the blank space at the right with the name of the 
tooth surface designated by the following phrases: 
281. (1) Toward the median line 
(2) Away from the median line 
(3) Toward the tongue 
(4) Toward the lips 
(5) Toward the cheeks 
(6) The biting edge (anterior teeth) 
(7) The chewing surface (posterior 
teeth) 
To the right of each item give the number of the tooth as 
listed according to Navy classification. 
282. (1) Maxillary right central incisor 
(2) Maxillary right first bicuspid 
(3) Maxillary left lateral incisor 
(4) Maxillary right second molar 
(5) Maxillary left first bicuspid 
(G) Mandibular right third molar 
(7) Maxillary right lateral incisor 
(8) Mandibular right first molar 
(9) Maxillary left first molar 
(10) Maxillary right first molar 
(11) Mandibular right first bicuspid 
(12) Maxillary left third molar 
(13) Mandibular left central incisor 
(14) Mandibular left second molar 
(15) Mandibular right cuspid 
(16) Mandibular left first bicuspid 
(17) Maxillary left second bicuspid 
(18) Maxillary left cuspid 
43 (19) Maxillary right second bicuspid 
(20) Mandibular right lateral incisor 
(21) Mandibular left cuspid 
(22) Maxillary right third molar 
(23) Maxillary left second molar 
(24) Mandibular right second bicuspid 
(25) Maxillary right cuspid 
(2G) Mandibular left third molar 
(27) Mandibular right second molar 
(28) Maxillary left central incisor 
(29) Mandibular right central incisor 
(30) Mandibular left second bicuspid 
(31) Mandibular left first molar 
(32) Mandibular left lateral incisor 
Give the correct abbreviation for the following tooth surfaces: 
283. (1) Lingual 
(2) Occlusal 
(3) Buccal 
(4) Mesial 
(5) Labial 
(6) Incisal 
(7) Distal 
Fill in the blank space with the word describing the 
condition indicated by the following markings which appear in 
red ink on the upper chart of the Dental Record (NavMed-H4): 
284. (1) An “X” through the number desig- 
nating a tooth. 
(2) Two crossing lines from maxillary 
right third molar to mandibular 
left third molar and maxillary left 
third molar to mandibular right 
third molar. 
(3) Restoration outlined and blocked 
in solidly. 
(4) Restoration outlined only. 
(5) Restoration outlined and inscribed 
with horizontal lines. 
(6) Aspects of two or more adjacent 
teeth outlined and inscribed with 
diagonal lines. 
44 Fill in the blank space with condition indicated by the 
following markings in black ink on the upper chart of the 
Dental Record (NavMed-H4): 
285. (1) Area on a tooth surface outlined 
and blocked in solidly. 
(2) Area on a tooth surface outlined 
only. 
(3) Oval around all aspects of a tooth. 
(4) 1/16 inch circle above the root of a 
maxillary tooth. 
(5) 1/16 inch circle above root of maxil- 
lary tooth with straight line leading 
to root of tooth. 
(6) Two parallel lines drawn vertically 
through all aspects of a tooth. 
Write on the line or lines to the right of each statement 
the word or words omitted from that statement. 
286. The form NavMed-H4 is also referred 
to as the Dental . 
287. Abnormal conditions observed during 
the original examination, which cannot 
be described by the standard dental 
markings, are recorded on the form Nav 
Med H-4 under the space headed . 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
number on the line at the right of the item. 
288. Dental restorations performed in the 
naval service are drawn in black on the 
NavMed-H4 
(a) at top of page. 
(b) on upper chart. 
(c) on lower chart, 
fd) under remarks. 
45 289. Findings of the original examination 
are drawn in black on the front of the 
NavMed-H4 
(a) at top of page. 
(b) on upper chart. 
(c) on lower chart. 
(d) under remarks. 
290. Responsibility for accuracy of the Nav- 
Med-H4 rests with the 
(a) dental technician. 
(b) dental officer. 
(c) medical officer. 
(d) personnel officer. 
291. Removable prosthetic appliances ob- 
served upon original examination 
should be 
(a) carefully drawn on the upper 
chart. 
(b) noted by an entry on the back of 
the NavMed-H4. 
(c) described briefly under ‘ ‘ Remarks. ’ ’ 
(d) not entered on the NavMed-H4. 
292. A series of treatments not producing 
graphic changes on the dental chart 
(a) should have an entry on the back 
of the NavMed-H4 for each treat- 
ment. 
(b) should denote only the initial and 
final treatment dates on the back of 
the NavMed-H4. 
(c) need not be recorded on the Nav- 
Med-H4. 
(d) should be entered on the lower 
chart. 
293. The NavMed-H4 is made out in 
(a) original only. 
(b) duplicate. 
(c) triplicate. 
(d) quadruplicate. 
46 294. Silicate restorations placed while in the 
naval service should be entered on the 
back of the NavMed-H4 and 
(a) outlined in red on the lower chart. 
(b) outlined in black on the lower 
chart. 
(c) outlined and blocked-in, in black, 
on the lower chart. 
(d) outlined and blocked-in, in red, 
on the lower chart. 
295. An apicoectomy performed in the naval 
service is drawn as 
(a) a small triangle in red ink on _____ 
upper chart. 
(b) a small triangle in black ink on the 
upper chart. 
(c) a small triangle in black ink on the 
lower chart. 
(d) a small triangle in red ink on the 
lower chart. 
296. Dentures supplied in the naval service 
are designated by 
(a) entering brief description of 
appliance under “Remarks” on the 
front of the NavMed-H4. 
(b) entering brief description on the 
back of NavMed-H4. 
(c) reproducing the appliance on the 
lower chart and a brief description 
on the back of the NavMed-H4. 
(d) making no entry on the NavMed 
-H4. 
47 ASSIGNMENT NO. 11 
DENTAL AMALGAM 
Before you answer these questions study pages 261-286 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists (General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Write on the lines to the right of each statement the word or 
words omitted from that statement. 
297. The combination of two or more metals, 
exclusive of mercury, is called an 
298. The combination of any metal or alloy 
with mercury is called an 
299. An instrument used for carrying small 
masses of freshly mixed amalgam to 
place in a prepared cavity is called a 
300. An instrument used to carve a freshly 
placed amalgam in order to restore nor- 
mal tooth form is known as a 
301. A device used to mix or triturate an 
alloy with mercury to produce an amal- 
gam is called an 
302. An instrument used to condense or pack 
amalgam when inserting an amalgam 
restoration is called a 
303. Heating an alloy in an oven for a pre- 
scribed period of time to adjust its crys- 
talline structure to a uniform arrange- 
ment is known as 
304. The strength of a substance expressed 
in terms of the pressure necessary to 
crush a unit of the substance (usually 
computed in pounds per square inch) 
is called 
305. The lateral spreading or crawling of 
amalgam when subjected to stress is 
called 
48 
48 306. A short strip of thin steel or other metal, 
not affected by mercury, used in form- 
ing a wall about a cavity into which 
amalgam is packed is called a 
307. An instrument which holds and tightens 
a matrix band around a tooth is called a 
308. A heavy metal, which is a fluid at ord- 
inary temperatures and has a character- 
istic silvery appearance, used to produce 
amalgams with a metal or an alloy is 
known as 
309. A strong bowl in which substances are 
rubbed together or triturated by means 
of a pestle is known as a , 
310. The process of rubbing together a mass 
of freshly mixed amalgam in a piece of 
rubber dam (or in a linen squeeze cloth) 
for the purpose of obtaining a more 
homogeneous mixture is known as 
311. An instrument designed for mixing sub- 
stances in a mortar is known as a 
312. An amalgam proportioner or dispenser 
is a mechanical device used to obtain the 
correct proportion of and 
313. The time required for the crystallization 
or hardening of plastic amalgam is 
known as time. 
314. A small piece of cloth used to express 
excess mercury from freshly mixed amal- 
gam is called a 
315. The process of producing a plastic amal- 
gam, suitable for filling by rubbing alloy 
and mercury together in a mortar or 
other device is known as 
316. An instrument used to burnish freshly 
placed amalgam is called an 
0- 
— 
49 317. A glass mortar and pestle, a pressure 
regulated metal mortar and pestle, or a 
mechanical triturator may be used to 
mix 
318. The process of separating a mass of amal- 
gam into subdivisions is known as 
50 ASSIGNMENT NO. 12 
DENTAL ASSISTING 
Before answering these questions study pages 5-14 and 322- 
344, in Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
In the space at the right of each item in list B, print the 
letter of the one most closely related item in list A. 
319. Four procedures which should be accomplished before 
the patient is seated in the dental chair are 
(a) supply clean bracket table cover 
(b) adjust chair headrest 
(c) lay out instruments 
(d) switch on unit 
(e) lower dental chair 
(f) place clean handpiece on engine arm 
(g) place clean headrest cover 
(h) place dean cup in the unit cup 
holder 
B 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
320. Four procedures which should be accomplished immed- 
ately after the patient is seated in the dental chair are 
A 
(a) adjust headrest 
(b) adjust light 
(c) prepare filling material 
(d) place clean towel on patient 
(e) lay out examining instruments 
(f) fill spray bottles 
(g) place clean headrest cover 
(h) scrub cuspidor 
B 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
51 321. Match each item in list A with the operation in list B 
to which it applies. 
A 
(a) gutta percha 
(b) retainer 
(c) cement base 
(d) mortar and pestle 
(e) scaler 
(f) procaine 
(g) phenol 
(h) articulating paper 
(i) condenser 
(j) zinc oxide paste 
(k) amalgam carver 
(l) excavator 
(m) celluloid strip 
B 
(1) packing amalgam 
(2) applying matrix 
(3) removing decay 
(4) sterilizing cavity 
(5) insulating pulp 
(6) sedative base 
(7) amalgamation 
(8) silicate cement 
(9) oral prophylaxis _____ 
(10) regional anesthesia 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter in the line at the right. 
322. After using saliva ejector tubes they 
should be flushed out with 
(a) sodium carbonate solution: 
(b) dilute acid solution. 
(c) clean water. 
(d) carbon tetrachloride. 
323. Dental handpieces should be cleaned 
(a) after each patient. 
(b) daily. 
(c) weekly. 
(d) immediately before inspections. 
324. Dental equipment (chair, cabinet and 
unit) should be cleaned and polished 
with 
(a) water. 
(b) alcohol. 
(c) furniture polish. 
(d) liquid petrolatum. 
52 325. The correct boiling time for sterilizing 
instruments is 
(a) 5 minutes. 
(b) 10 minutes. 
(c) 30 minutes. 
326. After using instruments they should be 
(a) sterilized immediately. 
(b) washed first with soap and water. 
(c) allowed to dry before sterilization. 
(d) returned to the dental cabinet. 
327. The proper length of time for a dental 
appointment is 
(a) one hour. 
(b) one-half hour. 
(c) fifty minutes. 
(d) as directed by the dental officer. 
328. The name, rank or rate, and station of 
each patient should be entered in the 
appointment book 
(a) after the day’s treatment is com- 
pleted. 
(b) at the end of each day. 
(c) after all treatment is completed. 
(d) when the appointment is made. 
329. Statistics for the NavMcd-K are norm- 
ally compiled from 
(a) the dental record (NavMed-H4). 
(b) the appointment book. 
(c) the NavMed-R. 
(d) the NavMed-Y. 
330. When a patient suffering pain of dental 
origin reports for treatment the dental 
technician should 
(a) advise the patient to return at 
sick call. 
(b) place the patient in the dental 
chair immediately. 
(c) advise the dental officer imme- 
diately. 
53 331. Entries are made in the appointment 
book 
(a) in black ink. 
(b) in indelible pencil. 
(c) in red ink. 
(d) in pencil. 
332. As the patients arrive at dental sick call, 
the technician should 
(a) take patients in order of arrival. 
(b) take emergency cases first. 
(c) take patients in order of their 
rank. 
(d) take name, rate or rank, and 
nature of ailment and report to the 
dental officer. 
333. When a patient with a routine dental 
appointment arrives while another 
patient is being treated, the technician 
should do two of the following: 
(a) direct him to the waiting room. 
(b) inform the dental officer. 
(c) give the arriving patient another 
appointment. 
(d) dismiss the patient being treated 
immediately. 
54 ASSIGNMENT 13 
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 
DESCRIPTION OF THE HUMAN DENTITION 
Before you answer these questions study pages 97-124 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
334. The human dentition is classified as 
(a) homodont. 
(b) monophyodont. 
(c) diphyodont. 
(d) polyphyodont. 
335. The first teeth to erupt are known as 
(a) succedaneous. 
(b) deciduous 
(c) herbivorous. 
(d) carnivorous. 
336. The upper arch of the dentition is known 
as the 
(a) enamel bud. 
(b) mandible. 
(c) maxillae. 
(d) alveolar arch. 
337. The main function of incisor teeth is 
(a) cutting. 
(b) prehensibility. 
(c) tearing. 
(d) space maintainers. 
338. Cuspids are also termed 
(a) canine teeth. 
(b) Hutchinson teeth. 
(c) deciduous teeth. 
(d) herbiverous teeth. 
55 339. Under normal conditions each adult 
arch contains 
(a) four molars. 
(b) six molars. 
(c) eight molars. 
(d) ten molars. 
340. Bicuspids possess 
(a) two cusps. 
(b) three cusps. 
(c) four cusps. 
(d) five cusps. 
341. The dental pulp is located in the 
(a) bands of Retzius. 
(b) enamel. 
(c) innermost portion of the tooth. 
(d) alveolus. 
342. The mesial surface of a tooth faces 
toward the 
(a) median line. 
(b) axial line. 
(c) long axis of the tooth. 
(d) cingulum. 
343. The labial surface of an anterior tooth 
faces toward the 
(a) axial line. 
(b) median line. 
(c) tongue. 
(d) lips. 
344. The buccal surface of a posterior tooth 
faces toward the 
(a) lips. 
(b) cheeks. 
(c) median line. 
(d) axial line. 
345. Occlusal surfaces of teeth are the 
(a) chewing surfaces of the posterior 
teeth. 
(b) incisal edges of the anterior teeth. 
(c) cutting edges of the canine teeth. 
(d) lingual surfaces of the anterior 
teeth. 
56 346. The junction of two surfaces of a tooth 
is termed 
(a) a line angle. 
(b) the cuspal eminence. 
(c) the transverse ridge. 
(d) the developmental groove. 
347. The junction of three adjoining surfaces 
of a tooth is termed a 
(a) transverse ridge. 
(b) triangular ridge. 
(c) point angle. 
(d) fossa. 
348. The junction of two triangular ridges of 
a tooth forms 
(a) a fossa. 
(b) a sulcus. 
(c) a transverse ridge. 
(d) the developmental groove. 
349. A fissure in the enamel is the result of 
(a) the imperfect fusion of the forma- 
tive parts. 
(b) the junction of supplemental 
grooves. 
(c) a lack of mouth hygiene. 
(d) two mesial surfaces in contact. 
350. The maxillary central incisors are 
(a) two in number. 
(b) four in number. 
(c) six in number. 
(d) eight in number. __ 
351. Each mammelon of an anterior tooth 
represents a 
(a) labial lobe. 
(b) cingulum. 
(c) ameloblast. 
(d) marginal ridge. 352. The incisal edge of an upper central 
incisor is beveled at the expense of the 
(a) mesial surface. 
(b) distal surface. 
(c) height of contour. 
(d) lingual surface. 
353. The roots of permanent central incisors 
are 
(a) bifurcated. 
(b) multiple. 
(c) single. 
354. The second tooth from the median line 
in the upper arch is the 
(a) second bicuspid. 
(b) second molar. 
(c) lateral incisor. 
(d) cuspid. 
355. The formation of a peg shaped lateral 
incisor takes place when 
(a) the ameloblast is destroyed. 
(b) the mesial and distal lobes fail to 
develop. 
(c) all the enamel rods are on the lingual 
surface. 
(d) the central incisor fails to erupt. 
356. The cuspids are located at the 
(a) median line. 
(b) retro-molar area. 
(c) angle of the mouth. 
(d) naso-palatine foramen. 
357. The tooth with the longest root is the 
(a) upper central incisor. 
(b) lower wisdom tooth. 
(c) upper cuspid. 
(d) upper bicuspid. 
358. The third tooth from the median line is 
(a) the third molar. 
(b) the first bicuspid. 
(c) the second bicuspid. 
(d) the cuspid. 
58 359. The contact point of the distal surface 
of the upper cuspid is 
(a) located at the incisal edge. 
(b) found at the gingival third. 
(c) found in the incisal one-third. 
(d) not present. 
360. On the buccal cusp of the upper first 
bicuspid there is 
(a) an oval ridge. 
(b) a semilunar ridge. 
(c) a triangular ridge. 
(d) an area which represents a lack of 
calcification. 
361. Both the lingual and buccal surfaces of 
the upper first bicuspid are 
(a) convex. 
(b) semi-lunar. 
(c) straight. 
(d) concave. 
362. The point of greatest convexity of the 
buccal surface of the upper first bicus- 
pid is located at the 
(a) occlusal surface. 
(b) junction of the occlusal and middle 
third. 
(c) junction of the middle and gingival 
third. 
(d) gingival line. 
363. The upper first bicuspid has bifurcated 
roots in 
(a) 15% of cases. 
(b) 30% of cases. 
(c) 50% of cases. 
(d) 100% of cases. 
364. The root of the upper second bicuspid is 
(a) generally bifurcated. 
(b) generally three rooted. 
(c) similar to the upper central incisor. 
(d) seldom bifurcated. 
59 365. The smallest of all the bicuspids is the 
(a) upper first bicuspid. 
(b) the upper second bicuspid. 
(c) the lower first bicuspid. 
(d) lower second bicuspid. 
366. The largest tooth in the mouth is the 
(a) lower wisdom tooth. 
(b) upper second bicuspid. 
(c) maxillary first molar. 
(d) mandibular first molar. 
367. The occlusal surface of the upper first 
molar is 
(a) trapezoidal in shape. 
(b) quadrilateral in shape. 
(c) rhomboidal in shape. 
(d) rectangular in shape. 
368. A Carabelli Cusp is sometimes found on 
the 
(a) central incisor. 
(b) lower first molar. 
(c) lower third molar. 
(d) upper first molar. 
369. The largest root of the upper first molar 
is the 
(a) mesio-buccal. 
(b) disto-buccal. 
(c) mesio-lingual. 
(d) lingual. 
370. The upper second molar differs from the 
upper first molar in that it 
(a) is smaller. 
(b) is four rooted. 
(c) has six cusps. 
(d) has two cusps of Carabelli. 
371. The mandibular second molar is also 
known as the 
(a) key to occlusion. 
(b) six year molar. 
(c) twelve year molar. 
(d) eight year molar. 
60 372. From the median line the maxillary 
second molar is the 
(a) fifth tooth. 
(b) sixth tooth. 
(c) seventh tooth. 
(d) ninth tooth. 
373. The term “wisdom tooth” is applied to 
(a) lower central incisors. 
(b) upper central incisors. 
(c) upper first molar. 
(d) third molars. 
374. The teeth of early childhood are known 
as 
(a) succedaneous teeth. 
(b) homodont teeth. 
(c) deciduous teeth. 
(d) polyphyodont teeth. 
375. The first deciduous tooth makes its 
appearance at approximately 
(a) six months. 
(b) nine months. 
(c) eleven months. 
(d) fourteen months. 
376. The complete deciduous dentition con- 
sists of 
(a) fourteen teeth. 
(b) sixteen teeth. 
(c) twenty teeth. 
(d) twenty-four teeth. 
377. The permanent central incisor generally 
erupts during the 
(a) 6th - 7th year. 
(b) 7th - 8th year. 
(c) 8th - 9th year. 
(d) 9th - 10th year. 
378. The cuspid tooth generally erupts during 
(a) 7th - 8th year. 
(b) 9th - 10th year. 
(c) 12th - 13th year. 
(d) 14th - 15th year. 
61 379. The roots of the deciduous molars par- 
tially surround the 
(a) crowns of the permanent incisors. 
(b) the developing bicuspid crowns. 
(c) crowns of the first permanent 
molar. 
(d) crowns of the third molars. ___ 
380. The age of eruption of the first molars 
usually is 
(a) 5th year. 
(b) 6th year. 
(c) 8th year. 
(d) 9th year. 
381. The age of eruption of the third molars 
usually is 
(a) 12 - 14 years. 
(b) 14 - 15 years. 
(c) 15 - 16 years. 
(d) 17 - 20 years. 
382. The upper first bicuspid usually appears 
during the 
(a) 9th - 10th year. 
(b) 10th - 11th year. 
(c) 12th - 13th year. 
(d) 13th - 14th year. 
62 ASSIGNMENT NO. 14 
DENTAL HISTOLOGY 
Before you answer these questions study pages 125-163 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists (General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
383. The crown portion of the tooth is covered 
with 
(a) lamina dura. 
(b) cementum. 
(c) enamel. 
(d) cuticle. 
384. The greatest bulk of the tooth is made up 
of 
(a) pulp. 
(b) dentin. 
(c) enamel rods. 
(d) cementum. 
385. The thin layer of bone-like material 
covering the root is 
(a) cementum. 
(b) lamina dura. 
(c) enamel. 
(d) Nasmyth’s membrane. 
386. The cavity occupying the central portion 
of the tooth is filled with 
(a) squamous epithelial tissue. 
(b) pulp tissue. 
(c) dentin. 
(d) striated tissue. 
387. Between the root and the alveolar bone 
is found the 
(a) dental periosteum. 
(b) primary cuticle. 
(c) external alveolar plate. 
(d) granular layer of Tomes. 
63 388. The soft tissue covering the alveolar 
process and attached to the tooth is 
known as the 
(a) lamina dura. 
(b) alveolar crest. 
(c) gingivae. 
(d) secondary cuticle. 
389. The epithelial membrane which covers 
the tooth upon its eruption is termed 
(a) mucous patch. 
(b) peridental membrane. 
(c) layer of Weil. 
(d) enamel cuticle. 
390. Nasmyth’s membrane on the occlusal 
and incisal surfaces of the teeth is worn 
away by 
(a) mastication. 
(b) the use of toothpicks. 
(c) the use of cigarettes. 
(d) dental floss. 
391. The hardest tissue in the body is 
(a) osseous tissue 
(b) lymphoid tissue. 
(c) enamel tissue. 
(d) endochondral bone. 
392. The enamel of the crown is hardest at the 
(a) sulcus portion. 
(b) cervical portion. 
(c) cusp portion. 
(d) buccal portion. 
393. The organic content of the enamel is 
(a) 10%. 
(b) 30%. 
(c) 50%. 
(d) 90%. _ 
394. The inorganic content of the enamel is 
(a) 10%. 
(b) 20%. 
(c) 50%. 
(d) 90%. 395. Green stain formation is aided by the 
presence of 
(a) epithelial attachment. 
(b) paradental lamellae. 
(c) enamel cuticle. 
(d) odontoblastic layer. 
396. Rods, rod sheaths, and interprismatic 
substance make up the 
(a) dentin. 
(b) lamina dura. 
(c) enamel. 
(d) root. 
397. The inorganic content of dentin is 
(a) 15%. 
(b) 45%. 
(c) 70%. 
(d) 85%. 
398. The organic content of the dentin is 
(a) 15%. 
(b) 30%. 
(c) 65%. 
(d) 90%. 
399. The color of dentin is 
(a) pale pink. 
(b) light yellow. 
(c) grey-white. 
(d) pale orange. 
400. The diameter of dentinal tubules varies 
from 
(a) 2-4 microns. 
(b) 5-7 microns. 
(c) 8-9 microns. 
(d) 10-12 microns. 
401. Secondary dentin is deposited on the 
(a) dentino-enamel junction. 
(b) entire pulpal surface of the dentine. 
(c) within the horns of the pulp. 
(d) line of Schreger. 
65 402. In scale of hardness of tooth structure, 
cementum ranks 
(a) first. 
(b) second. 
(c) third. 
(d) fourth. 
403. The inorganic content of the cementum is 
(a) 20%. 
(b) 55%. 
(c) 75%. 
(d) 92%. 
404. The organic content of the cementum is 
(a) 15%. 
(b) 25%. 
(c) 45%. 
(d) 65%. 
405. Tooth development is termed 
(a) biogenesis. 
(b) odontogenesis. 
(c) autolysis. 
(d) hyperemia. 
406. Tomes dentinal fibers are projections of 
the 
(a) lamina dura. 
(b) osteocyte. 
(c) cementoblasts. 
(d) odontoblasts. 
66 ASSIGNMENT NO. 15 
BACTERIOLOGY 11 
Before you answer these questions study pages 165-174 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
407. The science dealing with the study of 
minute organisms found in the mouth is 
(a) oral histology. 
(b) oral sepsis. 
(c) oral bacteriology. 
(d) oral microbes. 
408. The shape of microorganisms that are 
classified as cocci is 
(a) round. 
(b) square. 
(c) oblong. 
(d) semicircle. 
409. The shape of microorganisms that are 
classified as bacilli is 
(a) circular. 
(b) triangular. 
(c) rod shaped. 
(d) threadlike. 
410. The shape of microorganisms that are 
classified as spirochetes is 
(a) round or oval. 
(b) wavy or threadlike. 
(c) square or oblong. 
(d) spherical or crescent. 
411. The cocci are divided into several groups 
according to their 
(a) size. 
(b) arrangement. 
(c) color. 
(d) location. 
67 412. Cocci that are arranged in chains are 
known as 
(a) streptococci. 
(b) staphylococci. 
(c) diplococci. 
(d) tetracocci. 
413. Cocci that are arranged in pairs are 
known as 
(a) tetracocci. 
(b) staphylococci. 
(c) diplococci. 
(d) streptococci. 
414. Cocci that are arranged in clumplike 
formations are known as 
(a) diplococci. 
(b) tetracocci. 
(c) streptococci. 
(d) staphylococci. 
415. Streptococcus hemolyticus may be re- 
sponsible for 
(a) pneumonia. 
(b) gonorrhea. 
(c) septicemia. 
(d) tuberculosis. 
416. Streptococcus viridans is frequently 
found in 
(a) apical abscesses of teeth. 
(b) sputum from tubercular patients. 
(c) Vincent’s infection. 
(d) gingivitis. 
417. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylo- 
coccus albus are 
(a) gonorrhea producing organisms. 
(b) pus producing organisms. 
(c) gingivitis producing organisms. 
(d) pneumonia producing organisms. 
68 418. The bacillus associated with Vincent’s 
infection is 
(a) Bacillus fusiformis. 
(b) Lactobacillus acidophilus. 
(c) Leptotrichia buccalis. 
(d) Bacillus tuberculi. 
419. The Leptotrichia buccalis, which is fre- 
quently found in the oral cavity, is 
(a) the cause of ulcero-membranous 
gingivitis. 
(b) the cause of aphthous stomatitis. 
(c) the cause of dental caries. 
(d) non-pathogenic. 
420. Spirillum, Borrelia, and Treponema are 
types of 
(a) Vincent’s organisms. 
(b) spirochetes. 
(c) fungi. 
(d) bacilli. 
421. Spirochetes are usually found in 
(a) pairs. 
(b) chains. 
(c) indefinite pattern. 
(d) definite groups. 
422. The Treponema pallidum is the causa- 
tive organism of 
(a) Vincent’s infection. 
(b) periodontoclasia. 
(c) syphilis. 
(d) gingivitis. 
423. The organisms sometimes found in the 
mouth, which stretch in long threads or 
cilia and which are sometimes branched 
or are in chains, are classified as 
(a) bacilli. 
(b) spirilli. 
(c) cocci. 
(d) fungi. 424. The organism which causes lumpy jaw is 
(a) Blastomycetes. 
(b) Actinomyces bo vis. 
(c) Monilia albicans. 
(d) Lactobacillus acidophilus. 
425. The organism which causes thrush of the 
oral mucosa is 
(a) Actinomyces bovis. 
(b) Monilia albicans. 
(c) Blastomycetes. 
(d) Staphylococcus albus. 
426. A smear from an ulcer of the oral mucosa 
will usually show 
(a) only staphylococci. 
(b) only streptococci. 
(c) many forms of organisms. 
(d) only spirochetes. 
427. Bacterial smears should be used for the 
determination of oral disease 
(a) instead of visual examinations. 
(b) to substantiate clinical evidence. 
(c) as a substitute for clinical exam- 
inations. 
(d) when in a hurry. 
428. The two most important means of killing 
bacteria are 
(a) heat and germicides. 
(b) phenol and alcohol. 
(c) soap and water. 
(d) antiseptics and bacteriostatic 
agents. 
429. It has been estimated that one organism 
under favorable circumstances could give 
rise in 24 hours to 
(a) 100 others. 
(b) 1000 others. 
(c) 1,000,000 others. 
(d) 1,000,000,000 others. 
70 430. The multiplication of oral bacteria is 
favored by 
(a) hard foods. 
(b) increased resistance of oral tissues. 
(c) lowered resistance of oral tissues. 
(d) increased saliva. 
431. Bacteria which can live in the absence 
of oxygen are called 
(a) aerobes. 
(b) obligate aerobes. 
(c) anerobes. 
(d) strict aerobes. 
432. Bacteria which require oxygen are called 
(a) aerobes. 
(b) Treponema pallidum. 
(c) anerobes. 
(d) Fusiformis dentium. 
433. Facultative anerobes are those organ- 
isms which have the power to live 
(a) only in the presence of oxygen. 
(b) only in the absence of oxygen. 
(c) in either the presence or absence 
of oxygen. 
(d) in either the presence or absence 
of phenol. 
434. The organisms associated with Vincent’s 
infection live more favorably 
(a) on occlusal surfaces of teeth. 
(b) on the tongue. 
(c) on the crests of the gingivae. 
(d) in gingival crevices packed with 
debris. __ 
435. In order to multiply, bacteria in general 
must have 
(a) incubation, agar media, and air. 
(b) light, agar, and glucose. 
(c) moisture, warmth, and food. 
(d) dryness, mucous membrane, and 
alkaline media. 
71 436. In bacteriological laboratories, sub- 
stances such as glucose, nutrient agar, 
and blood agar are called 
(a) solutions. 
(b) culture media. 
(c) slants. 
(d) plates. 
437. The relative infectiousness of a micro- 
organism determines its 
(a) shape. 
(b) host. 
(c) mobility. 
(d) virulence. 
438. The total defensive mechanism possessed 
by animals against bacteria is known as 
(a) antibodies. 
(b) white blood cells. 
(c) resistance. 
(d) agglutinins. 
439. The substances in body fluids, which 
cause various changes to take place in 
bacteria to prevent their multiplication 
and cause them to be precipitated or 
clumped, are called 
(a) antibodies. 
(b) antigens. 
(c) red blood cells. 
(d) neutrophiles. 
440. When antibodies are produced, to destroy 
or render harmless bacteria which 
cause a certain disease, a person is pro- 
tected from further attack by the same 
organisms. A person so protected is 
said to be 
(a) susceptible to the disease. 
(b) immune to the disease. 
(c) less resistant to the disease. 
(d) exposed to the disease. 
72 441. In t he continuous battle between bacteria 
and man, disease is caused when the 
(a) body resistance is low and the 
organism virulence is high. 
(b) body resistance is high and the 
organism virulence is low. 
(c) body resistance is equal to the 
organism virulence. 
442. Accumulations of dental calculus, which 
act as a source of irritation to the gin- 
givae, lower tissue resistance and result 
in 
(a) decreased number of bacteria. 
(b) increased number of bacteria. 
(c) unchanged number of bacteria. 
(d) elimination of microorganisms. 
443. The property of epithelium which pro- 
hibits bacteria from lodging and multi- 
plying on the epithelial surface is known 
as 
(a) asepsis. 
(b) germicidal. 
(c) autolysis. 
(d) autosterilization. 
444. Dental instruments used for routine 
operative procedures should be washed 
and sterilized 
(a) at the end of the day. 
(b) following their use on a patient. 
(c) every morning before clinic hours. 
(d) the day following their use. 
445. The material for a gingival smear should 
be taken from the 
(a) most irritated area of the gingivae. 
(b) least irritated area of the gingivae. 
(c) most keratinized area of the gin- 
givae. 
(d) least keratinized area of the gin- 
givae. 
73 446. All instruments and materials for use in 
oral surgical and root canal procedures 
should be 
(a) sterile. 
(b) clean. 
(c) washed. 
447. When making an oral smear for a micro- 
scopic examination, the slide, with smear 
side up, should be passed through the 
flame for the purpose of 
(a) removing the cleaning solution. 
(b) killing the bacteria. 
(c) fixing the bacteria so they will not 
wash off. 
(d) removing debris from the smear. 
448. Oral smears are ordinarily stained with 
(a) gentian violet and crystal violet. 
(b) carbo-fuchsin and methylene blue. 
(c) brilliant green and acriflavine. 
(d) methylrosaniline and silver nitrate. 
449. When a cover glass is used, it is fixed to 
the slide with 
(a) balsam or Clearite. 
(b) water or peroxide. 
(c) mucin or glue. 
(d) oil or petrolatum. 
450. A cover glass is placed on a slide for the 
purpose of 
(a) protecting it from the objectives. 
(b) making it easier to handle. 
(c) preserving the slide with the smear. 
(d) increasing the bulk of the slide. 
451. Root canal smears and cultures are 
taken to 
(a) isolate specific organisms. 
(b) insure that the canal is sterile be- 
fore it is filled. 
(c) determine if the canal is dry. 
(d) find out which bacteria remain. 
74 452. The property of saliva that aids in reduc- 
ing the number of organisms in the 
mouth is called 
(a) fluid. 
(b) mucous. 
(c) antiseptic. 
(d) lubricant. 
453. The procedure whereby oral infections 
may be carried by the blood stream to 
other parts of the body, where additional 
infection is started, is called 
(a) focus of infection. 
(b) focal infection. 
(c) septicemia. 
(d) bacteriemia. 
454. The two organisms most frequently 
responsible for general systemic disorders 
which originate from dental infections 
are 
(a) Streptococcus hemolyticus and vi- 
ridans. 
(b) Staphylococcus aureus and albus. 
(c) Spirillum Vincenti and Fusiform 
bacillus. 
(d) Lactobacillus acidophilus and Blas- 
tomycetes. 
455. A clump-like formation consisting of 
bacteria, debris, and mucin lodged on a 
tooth surface is known as 
(a) bacterial clump. 
(b) dental calculus. 
(c) enamel cuticle. 
(d) bacterial plaque. 
456. In order to determine the sterility of a 
root canal, a culture containing a canal 
point is incubated for a period of 
(a) 10 hours. 
(b) 24 hours. 
(c) 72 hours. 
(d) 108 hours. 
75 457. The microorganism generally believed to 
be responsible for liberating acid that 
dissolves enamel and causes caries is 
(a) Streptococcus hemolyticus. 
(b) Lactobacillus acidophilus. 
(c) Streptococcus viridans. 
(d) Staphylococcus aureus. 
458. In dental caries, after the enamel of a 
tooth has been dissolved and the dentin 
exposed, the microorganisms usually 
(a) disappear. 
(b) become inactive. 
(c) continue their activity and infect 
the pulp. 
(d) form spores. 
459. The oil immersion lens of a microscope is 
the objective with the 
(a) lowest magnifying power. 
(b) medium magnifying power. 
(c) highest magnifying power. 
460. Oil is used with the oil immersion objec- 
tive of a microscope to 
(a) obtain better light refraction. 
(b) lubricate the lens. 
(c) lubricate the slide. 
(d) prevent breaking the slide. 
461. When focusing a microscope, the objec- 
tive should be adjusted in the direction 
of the 
(a) slide. 
(b) stage. 
(c) shutter. 
(d) eye. 
462. Oil should be removed from the oil 
immersion lens of a microscope with a 
piece of lens paper dampened with 
(a) alcohol. 
(b) water. 
(c) xylol. 
(d) eugenol. 
76 463. The list below contains the names of 
various parts-of a microscope. These 
parts have been indicated by letters in 
figure 1. In the blank following each 
item in the list, place the letter which 
designates that item in the figure. 
(1) glass slide 
(2) arm 
(3) pillar 
(4) substage 
(5) body tube 
(6) coarse adjustment 
(7) stage 
(8) ocular lens 
(9) iris diaphragm or shutter 
(10) revolving nosepiece 
(11) base 
(12) spring clip 
(13) fine adjustment 
(14) abbe or substage condenser 
(15) substage adjustment 
(16) inclination joint 
(17) mirror 
(18) objectives 
77 Figure 1. Parts of a microscope. ASSIGNMENT NO. 16 
ORGANIZATION OF THE DENTAL DEPARTMENT 
ON BOARD SHIP OR STATION 
Before you answer these questions study paragraphs 1336- 
1356 in Manual of the Medical Department, U. S. Navy, 1945. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each question and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
464. Each recruit shall be examined as soon as 
practicable after arrival at the training 
center, and a notation of every dental 
condition found shall be made in the 
(a) medical history sheet. 
(b) Dental Record. 
(c) Health Record. 
(d) physical examination. 
465. The chief of the dental service at a naval 
hospital shall have the same status, in 
his relation to the medical officer in 
command and the executive officer, as 
other 
(a) medical officers. 
(b) dental officers. 
(c) chiefs of services. 
(d) staff personnel. 
466. For the issue of small stores and clothing, 
the enlisted men of the dental depart- 
ment are under the 
(a) medical officer. 
(b) supply officer. 
(c) dental officer. 
(d) first lieutenant. 
79 467. The dental department in a ship includes 
(a) only dental officers. 
(b) enlisted dental technicians. 
(c) all personnel assigned for duty with 
the dental department. 
468. The head of the dental department of a 
ship shall be designated the 
(a) senior medical officer. 
(b) dental officer. 
(c) hospital corps officer. 
(d) medical officer. 
469. The dental division includes all personnel 
detailed for duty with the dental depart- 
ment and it musters at quarters at a 
place designated by the 
(a) first lieutenant. 
(b) executive officer. 
(c) medical officer. 
(d) commanding officer. 
470. The watch, quarter and station bill, and 
other bills which apply to personnel of 
the dental division, shall be posted in the 
(a) sick bay. 
(b) crew’s mess hall. 
(c) Executive Officer’s office. 
(d) dental division living compartment. 
471. The usual report regarding absentees 
from the dental department should be 
made by the 
(a) junior medical officer. 
(b) junior dental officer. 
(c) enlisted dental technician. 
(d) dental officer. 
80 ASSIGNMENT NO. 17 
ORAL HYGIENE 
Before you answer these questions study pages 189-200 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
472. The most important single factor in the 
maintenance of oral hygiene is 
(a) scaling. 
(b) tooth brushing. 
(c) mouth rinses. 
(d) mechanical stimulation of oral 
tissues. 
473. Proper tooth brushing affects the forma- 
tion of calculus in that it 
(a) prevents it. 
(b) retards it. 
(c) does not affect it. 
(d) increases it. 
474. The dental periosteum, alveolar bone 
and process, and the gingival tissues, 
make up the 
(a) corpus luteum. 
(b) paradentium. 
(c) cementum. 
(d) peridental membrane. 
475. A tooth brush should be 
(a) large, so that many teeth can be 
brushed with one motion. 
(b) moderately stiff and small to allow 
better access. 
(c) soft, so as not to injure the gums. 
(d) very stiff for good cleansing action. 
81 476. In regard to tooth pastes and powders, 
(a) any dentifrice is good so long as it 
contains a good supply of pumice. 
(b) many tooth pastes and powders 
are acceptable for use. 
(c) very few pastes and powders 
manufactured are acceptable for use. 
(d) pumice and salt are better than any 
of the “popular” pastes or powders 
for daily use. 
477. The teeth should be brushed at least 
twice each 
(a) day. 
(b) week. 
(c) year. 
(d) month. 
478. The teeth should be brushed for at least 
(a) one minute. 
(b) three minutes. 
(c) ten minutes. 
(d) twenty minutes. ' 
479. The motion used in brushing the upper 
teeth is 
(a) downward. 
(b) crosswise. 
(c) upward. 
(d) oblique. 
480. Salivary calculus, found on the exposed 
surfaces of the teeth, is called 
(a) chromogenic. 
(b) supragingival calculus. 
(c) serumal calculus. 
(d) subgingival calculus. ___ 
481. The type of calculus found inside the 
gingival crevice is called 
(a) salivary calculus. 
(b) coronal calculus. 
(c) supragingival calculus. 
(d) subgingival or serumal calculus. 
82 482. The yellowish-white sticky material 
which forms a mucous or bacterial 
plaque, in which calcium and phosphorus 
salts are precipitated to form calculus, 
is called 
(a) trypsin. 
(b) ptyalin. 
(c) saliva. 
(d) mucin. 
483. Calculus usually accumulates 
(a) evenly throughout the mouth. 
(b) only on rough unclean surfaces. 
(c) more in certain areas, especially 
near gland openings. 
(d) only on natural teeth—never on 
artificial teeth. 
484. A good solution for staining calculus to 
make it more visible is 
(a) an iodine solution. 
(b) 70% alcohol. 
(c) eugenol. 
(d) chromic acid. 
485. In using the tactile method (with an 
explorer), the presence of calculus can be 
determined by 
(a) its smooth velvet-like surface. 
(b) a ledge or roughness that is felt. 
(c) the stain that appears. 
(d) the pain the patient feels when it 
is touched. 
486. The thorough removal of calculus from 
the teeth is important because 
(a) it is.a sure cure for halitosis. 
(b) caries is decreased. 
(c) it lightens the color of teeth. 
(d) it does more for the health of the 
gingivae than any other procedure. 
83 487. One of the important requirements in 
doing good scaling is 
(a) to remove the calculus with the 
least possible damage to gingival 
tissues. 
(b) to use only the Zerfing scaler. 
(c) to scale well below the attachment 
of the gingival tissues. 
(d) to use a solution to soften the 
calculus. 
488. The epithelial attachment, during scal- 
ing, is felt as a 
(a) rough and flinty surface. 
(b) smooth and hard surface. 
(c) slight smooth bump. 
(d) gentle resistance to further intro- 
duction of a scaler. 
489. When scaling the left maxillary molar 
and bicuspid areas on the lingual aspect, 
the patient is raised to the proper level 
and his head is turned 
(a) to the left. 
(b) to the right. 
(c) downward. 
(d) at a 180 degree angle. 
490. A fulcrum is a 
(a) wrench to tighten the bracket 
table arm. 
(b) solid support to obtain leverage. 
(c) sore, sometimes called a canker 
sore. 
(d) an instrument with a pencil-likc 
grip- 
491. When holding a scaling instrument there 
are two principal grasps; one is the pencil 
grasp, the other is the 
(a) exploratory grasp. 
(b) fulcrum grasp. 
(c) palm grasp. 
(d) forcep grasp. 
84 492. Scaling the internal surfaces of the maxil- 
lary incisors is accomplished by 
(a) standing on the left side of the 
patient. 
(b) standing at the right and in front 
of the patient. 
(c) standing behind the patient and 
using a mouth mirror. 
(d) standing at the left and in front 
of the patient. 
493. The Zerfing scaler is a 
(a) push type instrument. 
(b) pull type instrument. 
(c) filing instrument. 
(d) hawkbill shaped scaler. 
494. The Darby-Perry, Thorpe, and Gracey 
scalers are of the 
(a) pull type. 
(b) push type. 
(c) filing type. 
(d) double ended type. 
495. The Zerfing scaler is extremely valuable 
(a) for scaling children’s teeth. 
(b) for calculus on anterior teeth. 
(c) for upper third molars. 
(d) for extremely loose teeth. 
496. It is not safe to give a prophylaxis when 
(a) there are carious areas in teeth. 
(b) gingivae are highly inflamed and 
ulcerated. 
(c) the patient has a cold. 
(d) there are bacteria in the mouth. 
497. When polishing the teeth, there is less 
danger of damaging the tissues if the 
following is used: 
(a) rubber cups. 
(b) disks. 
(c) brushes. 
(d) abrasive wheels. 
85 498. The speed of the dental engine is con- 
trolled by the 
(a) rheostat. 
(b) hand switch. 
(c) thermostat. 
(d) automat. 
499. After polishing the buccal, lingual, and 
occlusal surfaces of teeth, 
(a) give the patient an antiseptic mouth 
wash and dismiss him. 
(b) polish the proximal surfaces with 
fine linen strips or dental floss and 
fine pumice. 
(c) polish the cementum with sand- 
paper disks. 
(d) give the patient some fine pumice 
with instructions to use some to re- 
move stain when it begins to appear. 
500. After use, the handpiece should be 
(a) placed in a cold sterilizing solution 
until again used. 
(b) thoroughly run in cold salt water, 
wiped off, and then placed in the 
sterilizer. 
(c) carefully wiped off with alcohol. 
(d) thoroughly cleaned, sterilized, and 
lubricated. 
86 ASSIGNMENT NO. 18 
MATERIA MEDICA 
Before you answer these questions study pages 357-368 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists (General), 1945 edition, and 
pages 602-603 in Handbook of the Hospital Corps, U. S. Navy, 
1939 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
501. Oil of cloves is a volatile oil and is used as 
(a) a cathartic. 
(b) a flavoring agent. 
(c) a constituent of sedative cements. 
502. Zinc oxide is a very fine amorphous, 
white powder and is a constituent of 
(a) amalgams. 
(b) dental cements. 
(c) gutta percha. 
503. The unit of length in the metric system 
is a 
(a) centimeter. 
(b) meter. 
(c) millimeter. 
504. The avoirdupois weights and measures 
are used 
(a) in commercial buying and selling. 
(b) by jewelers. 
(c) by pharmacists. 
505. The abbreviation A. D. R. stands for 
506. The abbreviation N. F. stands for 
507. The letters used to abbreviate “Phar- 
macopeia of the U. S. A.” are 
87 In the space at the right of each item in list B, print the letter 
of the most closely related item in list A. 
508. 
A 
(a) Medicament 
applicators and 
cotton pellets. 
(b) Medicine to be 
used is placed in a 
dappen dish. 
(c) Medicine should 
never be left on the 
bracket table. 
(d) Dappen dishes are 
colored. 
(e) Another means of 
distinguishing be- 
tween two medi- 
cines may be accom- 
plished. 
(f) Medicines. 
B 
(1) are never passed 
across a patient in 
the dental chair. 
(2) by placing one of 
the drugs in the 
deep cup of one 
dappen dish and 
the second drug in 
the shallow base 
of another. 
(3) for the purpose of 
positive identifica- 
tion of each drug. 
(4) longer than the 
time required for 
their application. 
(5) and then placed on 
the bracket table 
for the Dental Offi- 
cer’s convenience. 
(6) should never be 
dipped into a dis- 
pensing bottle. 
Fill in the blanks in the following 
509. grains make one scruple, (apothecaries’ weight) 
510. scruples make one dram, (apothecaries’ weight) 
511. dram; make one ounce, (apothecaries’ weight) 
512. ounces make one pound, (apothecaries’ weight) 
513. grains make one pennyweight, (troy weight) 
514. pennyweights make one ounce, (troy weight) 
515. ounces make one pound, (troy weight) 
88 ASSIGNMENT NO. 19 
ORAL PATHOLOGY 
Before you answer these questions study pages 175-202 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
516. Caries is a process characterized by two 
stages; the first a dissolution of lime 
salts by one of the following acids; 
(a) hydrochloric. 
(b) lactic. 
(c) phosphoric. 
(d) nitric. 
517. In dental caries, after the dissolution of 
lime salts by acid, the second stage is the 
removal of the remaining 
(a) organic matrix. 
(b) calculus. 
(c) green stain. 
(d) dentin. 
518. In caries of dentin, a leathery structure 
is formed as the result of 
(a) cavity preparation. 
(b) local anesthesia. 
(c) decalcification. 
(d) hypoplastic changes. 
519. One of the contents of drinking water, 
which has recently been found to lessen 
dental caries, is 
(a) fluorine. 
(b) phosphorus. 
(c) salt. 
(d) hydrogen. 
89 520. Acid formation on the surface of enamel 
seems to be inhibited by 
(a) calcium. 
(b) fluorine. 
(c) dentin. 
(d) mucin. 
521. The acid which initiates caries forms in 
pits and fissures or enamel lamellae and 
penetrates rapidly to the 
(a) enamel cuticle. 
(b) gums. 
(c) dentino-enamel junction. 
(d) genial tubercle where it stops. 
522. In order that a minimum amount of 
tissue damage will be done to the epi- 
thelial attachment, the technician should 
use the utmost care in removing 
(a) teeth. 
(b) caries. 
(c) sutures. 
(d) calculus. 
523. Inflamed gums will usually return to 
normal if the technician will carefully 
remove the 
(a) teeth. 
(b) epithelium. 
(c) attachment. 
(d) calculus. 
524. The primary cause of most marginal 
gingivitis is 
(a) smoking. 
(b) bacteria. 
(c) calculus. 
(d) heredity. 
525. Abrasion is caused by 
(a) caries. 
(b) wearing by a foreign substance. 
(c) normal chewing. 
(d) acids. ___ 
90 526. In Vincent’s infection it has been demon- 
strated that there are present in the 
sub-epithelial tissues 
(a) micro-organisms. 
(b) salivary calculus. 
(c) carious areas. 
(d) fibroblasts. 
527. Erosion is a loss of tooth structure 
(a) found affecting the surfaces of 
teeth, usually at the necks. 
(b) involving the occlusal surface 
only. 
(c) due to wearing processes. 
(d) due to the presence of fluorides. 
528. Attrition is loss of tooth structure due to 
normal chewing and usually involves 
(a) gingival areas. 
(b) pulp. 
(c) the cusps of teeth and contact 
points. 
(d) the external surface of the tooth. 
529. An enlarged lump or swelling in any 
patient’s mouth 
(a) is probably a serious condition and 
the dental officer’s attention should 
be called to it. 
(b) will usually disappear within 24 
hours. 
(c) cafi be treated by a dental 
technician. 
(d) is invariably from an alveolar 
abscess. 
530. Vincent’s infection is associated with 
(a) Vincent’s spirochete and Fusiform 
bacillus. 
(b) Lactobacillus acidophilus. 
(c) Treponema pallidum. 
(d) streptococci. 
91 531. Vincent’s gingivitis is also called 
(a) ulceromembranous gingivitis. 
(b) herpetic stomatitis. 
(c) hypertrophic gingivitis. 
(d) Vincent’s angina. 
92 ASSIGNMENT NO. 20 
DENTAL CEMENTS 
Before you answer these questions study pages 287-308 in 
Handbook for Dental Technologists {General), 1945 edition. 
INSTRUCTION TEST 
Write on the line or lines to the right of each statement the 
word or words omitted from that statement. 
Zinc Phosphate Cements 
532. Always use a mixing slab and 
spatula to spatulate zinc phosphate 
cement. 
533. Do not place the cement powder and 
liquid on the slab the dental 
officer is ready for the mixing procedure. 
534. In order to properly preserve the powder 
and liquids they should not be to 
the atmosphere for any greater time than 
is necessary to mix them. 
535. The average mix takes from 1 1/4 to 
11/2 minutes for 
Select the one best answer to each problem and write its 
letter on the line at the right. 
536. When spatulating or mixing zinc phos- 
phate cement the first portion should 
be spatulated with a circular motion 
over a 
(a) wide area of the slab for 15 
seconds. 
(b) small area of the slab for 15 
seconds. 
(c) wide area of the slab for 15 
minutes. 
93 537. A cement that is to be used for a base 
under a filling should be spatulated to a 
consistency which is 
(a) lighter than that used for cemen- 
tation of a crown. 
(b) the same as that used for cemen- 
tation of a bridge. 
(c) heavier than that used for cemen- 
tation of any restoration. 
538. A reasonable setting time for zinc phos- 
phate cement is 
(a) 5 to 10 seconds. 
(b) 45 seconds. 
(c) 6 to 10 minutes. 
(d) 20 minutes. 
Silicate Cement 
539. After removing the desired amount from 
a bottle of silicate cement liquid 
(a) replace the stopper immediately. 
(b) leave the bottle open for a short 
period of airing. 
(c) close the bottle partially to allow 
gas to escape. 
(d) add water to rectify the dilution. 
540. When silicate cement is spatulated, the 
glass slab should be 
(a) heated to the desired tempera- 
ture under warm water. 
(b) left at room temperature in all 
instances. 
(c) kept between 65 and 75 degrees F. 
(d) cooled below the dew point. ________ 
541. The best results are obtained from sili- 
cate cement if the spatulation is com- 
pleted in 
(a) 30 seconds. 
(b) 1 1/2 minutes. 
(c) 3 minutes. 
(d) 5 minutes. 
94 542. The thermal conductivity of gutta 
percha is 
(a) very low. 
(b) very high. 
(c) the same as an amalgam restora- 
tion. 
(d) the same as gold inlays. 
543. Chloropercha is made by dissolving 
gutta percha in 
(a) chlorophyll. 
(b) chlorine. 
(c) chloroform. 
(d) eucalyptol. 
Encircle the letter T if the statement is entirely true. If any 
part of the statement is false, encircle the letter F. 
544. Silicate cement is the choice restorative 
material for the posterior teeth. T F 
545. The color of silicate cement powders can 
readily be affected by contamination 
with dust or dirt. T F 
54G. The setting reaction of silicate cement 
proceeds rapidly once the setting has 
started. T F 
547. The setting reaction of silicate cement 
is not reversible. T F 
548. Never under any circumstances should 
more than one minute be consumed in 
spatulating a mix of silicate cement. T F 
549. Thirty seconds for spatulating silicate 
cements gives the best results. T F 
550. The celluloid strip should be coated 
with a filling lubricant or coca butter 
before it is used as a matrix for placing a 
silicate cement restoration. T F 
551. The cement slab should not be cooled 
prior to using it for spatulating silicate 
cement. T F 
95 552. The methods of mixing crown and bridge 
cement and that of mixing silicate 
cement are considerably different. T F 
553. When mixing silicate cements the cement 
slab should be cooled to a temperature 
between 65 and 70 degrees F. T F 
96 ANSWERS TO ASSIGNMENTS 
1. T 
2. T 
3. T 
4. T 
5. T 
6. F 
7. T 
8. T 
9. F 
10. T 
11. T 
12. T 
13. F 
14. T 
15. T 
16. T 
17. T 
18. T 
19. T 
20. T 
21. F 
22. T 
23. T 
24. F 
25. T 
26. T 
27. F 
28. T 
29. T 
30. F 
31. F 
32. F 
33. T 
34. F 
35. T 
36. T 
37. T 
Assignment No. 1 
38. T 
39. T 
40. T 
41. T 
42. T 
43. T 
44. F 
45. T 
46. T 
47. F 
48. T 
49. F 
50. F 
51. T 
52. T 
53. T 
54. T 
55. T 
56. T 
Assignment No. 2 
57. d 
58. c 
59. a 
60. b 
61. b 
62. c 
63. a 
64. a 
65. a 
66. c 
67. c 
68. b 
69. a 
70. d 
71. a 
72. b 
73. a 
74. c 
75. a 
76. a 
77. b 
78. b 
79. b 
80. c 
81. a 
82. a 
83. c 
84. b 
85. b 
86. a 
87. c 
88. a 
89. a 
Assignment No. 3 
90. b 
91. a 
92. b 
93. a 
94. c 
95. b 
96. a 
97. a 
98. b 
99. c 
100. b 
101. c 
102. d 
103. c 
104. a 
105. a 
106. a 
107. a 
108. b 
109. d 
110. c 
111. c 
97 112. a 
113. b 
114. c 
115. c 
116. a 
117. a 
118. b 
119. c 
120. a 
121. c 
122. c 
123. c 
124. a 
125. b 
126. c 
127. d 
128. c 
129. b 
130. c 
131. c 
132. a 
133. b 
134. c 
135. a 
136. c 
137. c 
138. c 
139. a 
140. c 
141. d 
142. a 
143. c 
144. a 
145. b 
146. a 
147. c 
148. b 
149. a 
Assignment No. 4 
150. F 
151. F 
152. T 
153. T 
154. F 
155. T 
156. T 
157. T 
158. T 
159. F 
160. T 
161. F 
162. T 
163. F 
164. T 
165. F 
166. T 
167. T 
168. F 
Assignment No. 5 
169. c 
170. d 
171. a 
172. c 
173. a 
174. b 
175. a 
176. b 
177. c 
178. a 
179. b 
180. b 
181. c 
182. b 
183. a 
184. b 
185. b 
186. a 
187. a 
188. c 
189. a 
Assignment No. 6 
190. digestion 
191. mastication 
192. deglution 
193. defaecation 
194. alimentary canal 
195. pharynx 
196. tongue 
197. abdominal 
198. peritoneum 
199. stomach 
200. small intestine 
201. large intestine. 
202. a 
203. c 
204. d 
205. d 
206. d 
207. d 
208. b 
209. a 
210. a 
211. b 
212. c 
213. b 
214. c 
Assignment No. 7 
215. b 
216. b 
217. c 218. micron 
219. non-pathogenic 
220. pathogenic 
221. aerobes 
222. anaerobes 
223. spores 
224. stains 
225. dark field 
226. carrier 
227. b 
228. c 
229. d 
230. a 
231. a 
232. c 
233. a 
234. b 
235. a 
236. c 
237. (1) b 
Assignment No. 8 
(2) d 
(3) c 
(4) a 
(5) e 
238. (1) a 
(2) c 
(3) d 
(4) g 
(5) h 
Assignment No. 9 
239. b 
240. a 
241. b 
242. d 
243. b 
244. a 
245. b 
246. c 
247. a 
248. a, b 
249. b, e 
250. a, b 
251. a, b 
252. a 
253. a 
254. a 
255. b 
256. b 
257. a 
258. T 
259. T 
260. F 
261. T 
262. T 
263. F 
264. T 
265. F 
266. F 
267. F 
268. F 
269. T 
270. T 
271. T 
272. F 
273. T 
274. F 
275. T 
276. T 
277. F 
278. T 
279. T 
280. T 
Assignment No. 10 
281. (1) mesial 
(2) distal 
(3) lingual 
(4) labial 
(5) buccal 
(6) incisal 
(7) occlusal 
282. (1) 8 
(2) 5 
(3) 10 
(4) 2 
(5) 12 
(6) 17 
(7) 7 
(8) 19 
(9) 14 
(10) 3 
(11) 21 
(12) 16 
(13) 25 
(14) 31 
(15) 22 
(16) 28 
(17) 13 
(18) 11 
(19) 4 
(20) 23 
(21) 27 
(22) 1 
(23) 15 
(24) 20 
(25) 6 
(26) 32 
(27) 18 
(28) 9 
(29) 24 
(30) 29 
(31) 30 
(32) 26 
99 Assigment No. 10 (Continued) 
283. (1) L 
(2) O 
(3) B 
(4) M 
(5) La 
(6) I 
(7) D 
284. (1) missing 
tooth 
(2) edentulous 
mouth 
(3) amalgam 
(4) cement 
(5) gold restora- 
tion 
(6) fixed bridge 
285. (1) caries 
(2) cement 
restoration 
(3) impacted 
tooth 
(4) abscess 
periapical 
(5) fistula 
(6) requiring 
extraction 
286. Record 
287. remarks 
288. c 
289. b 
290. b 
291. c 
292. b 
293. b 
294. b 
295. c 
296. b 
Assignment No. 11 
297. alloy 
298. amalgam 
299. amalgam carrier 
300. carver 
301. amalgamator 
302. plugger 
303. annealing 
304. crushing strength 
305. flow 
306. matrix band 
307. matrix retainer 
308. mercury 
309. mortar 
310. mulling 
311. pestle 
312. alloy mercury 
313. setting 
314. squeeze cloth 
315. trituration 
316. amalgam 
burnisher 
317. amalgam 
318. segmentation 
Assignment No. 12 
319. 1. a 
2. d 
3. e 
4. g 
320. 1. a 
2. b 
3. d 
4. e 
321. 1. i 
2. b 
3. 1 
4- g 
5. c 
6. j 
7. d 
8. m 
9. e 
10. f 
322. c 
323. a 
324. c 
325. b 
326. b 
327. d 
328. d 
329. b 
330. c 
331. a 
332. d 
333. a, b 
100 334. c 
335. b 
336. c 
337. a 
338. a 
339. b 
340. a 
341. c 
342. a 
343. d 
344. b 
345. a 
346. a 
347. c 
348. c 
349. a 
350. a 
351. a 
352. d 
353. c 
354. c 
355. b 
356. c 
357. c 
358. d 
359. c 
360. c 
361. a 
362. c 
363. c 
364. d 
365. c 
366. c 
Assignment No. 13 
367. c 
368. d 
369. d 
370. a 
371. c 
372. c 
373. d 
374. c 
375. a 
376. c 
377. b 
378. c 
379. b 
380. b 
381. d 
382. b 
Assignment No. 14 
383. c 
384. b 
385. a 
386. b 
387. a 
388. c 
389. d 
390. a 
391. c 
392. c 
393. a 
394. d 
395. c 
396. c 
397. c 
398. b 
399. b 
400. a 
401. b 
402. c 
403. b 
404. c 
405. b 
406. d 
Assignment No. 15 
407. c 
408. a 
409. c 
410. b 
411. b 
412. a 
413. c 
414. d 
415. c 
416. a 
417. b 
418. a 
419. d 
420. b 
421. c 
422. c 
423. d 
424. b 
425. b 
426. c 
427. b 
428. a 
429. d 
430. c 
431. c 
432. a 
433. c 
434. d 
435. c 
436. b 
437. d 
438. c 
439. a 
440. b 
441. a 
442. b 
443. d 
444. b 
445. a 
446. a 
447. c 
448. b 
449. a 
450. c 
451. b 
101 Assignment No. 15 (Continued) 
452. c 
453. b 
454. a 
455. d 
456. c 
457. b 
458. c 
459. c 
460. a 
461. d 
462. c 
463. (1) a 
(2) c 
(3) f 
(4) j 
(5) o 
(6) e 
(7) n 
(8) i 
(9) g 
(10) h 
(H) m 
(12) d 
(13) k 
(14) r 
(15) p 
(16) q 
(17) b 
(18) 1 
Assignment No. 16 
464. b 
465. c 
466. c 
467. c 
468. b 
469. d 
470. d 
471. d 
Assignment No. 17 
472. b 
473. b 
474. b 
475. b 
476. b 
477. a 
478. b 
479. a 
480. b 
481. d 
482. d 
483. c 
484. a 
485. b 
486. d 
487. a 
488. d 
489. a 
490. b 
491. o 
492. c 
493. a 
494. a 
495. b 
496. b 
497. a 
498. a 
499. b 
500. d 
Assignment No. 18 
501. c 
502. b 
503. b 
504. a 
505. Accepted Dental 
Remedies 
506. The National 
Formulary 
507. U.S.P. 
508. (1) f 
(2) e 
(3) d 
(4) c 
(5) b 
(6) a 
509. 20 
510. 3 
511. 8 
512. 12 
513. 24 
514. 20 
515. 12 
102 Assignment No. 19 
516. b 
517. a 
518. c 
519. a 
520. b 
521. c 
522. d 
523. d 
524. c 
525. b 
526. a 
527. a 
528. c 
529. a 
530. a 
531. a 
Assignment No. 20 
532. clean 
533. before 
534. exposed 
535. spatulation 
536. a 
537. c 
538. c 
539. a 
540. c 
541. a 
542. a 
543. c 
544. F 
545. T 
546. T 
547. T 
548. T 
549. T 
550. F 
551. F 
552. T 
553. T 
103 QUALIFICATIONS FOR ADVANCEMENT 
IN RATING 
DENTALMEN 
RATING CODE NO. 950 
General Service Rating 
Dentalmen (fifth pay grade) are personnel in training for 
advancement to the rating, Dental Technician. They perform 
such elementary duties as equipping dental cabinets with sterile 
instruments, dressings and medicines; cleaning and servicing 
dental equipment; preparing trays for impressions; boxing and 
pouring impressions; and polishing simple prosthetic appliances. 
They also keep dental records and perform routine clinical 
duties. 
EMERGENCY SERVICE RATING 
Same as General Service Rating. 
NAVAL JOB CLASSIFICATIONS 
Group Code Numbers Group THles 
90000-99999 DENTAL 
.100 PRACTICAL FACTORS 
.101 FIRST AID 
Apply various types of bandages, splints, and dressings. 
Give artificial respiration. 
Administer first-aid treatment to the injured and sick. 
Transport wounded manually. 
Render dental first-aid. 
.102 INSTRUMENTS AND MATERIALS 
Use and care of dental instruments, including sterilization 
and arrangement. 
.103 RECORDS AND CHARTS 
Inscribe dental written and graphic records. 
.104 ASSISTING THE DENTAL OFFICER 
Assist in simple routine dental operations. 
104 .200 EXAMINATION SUBJECTS 
Fundamental principles of biology. 
Cell and tissue structure. 
Nomenclature, location, and functions of bones. (Osteology) 
Nomenclature, location and functions of muscles. (Myology) 
Elementary description and function of circulatory system. 
Elementary description and function of respiratory system. 
Elementary description and function of digestive system. 
Elementary gross description and function of the permanent 
human dentition. 
Elementary description of enamel, dentin, and pulp. 
Elementary Pathology and Bacteriology. 
.201 ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, PATHOLOGY AND BACTERIOLOGY 
Elementary rules for first aid to the injured. 
Bandages and bandaging. 
Dressings for battle wounds. 
Splints employed in first-aid. 
Decontamination of gas casualties. 
Dental first-aid. 
.202 FIRST AID 
.203 DENTAL OPERATIVE ASSISTANCE 
Routine procedures. 
Preparation for patient. 
Preparation of patient. 
Manipulation of materials for restorations. 
Postoperative care. 
All Dentalmen who have been designated by the Bureau of 
Medicine and Surgery as dental prosthetic laboratory techni- 
cians, dental maintenance and repair technicians, dental prop- 
erty and accounting technicians, dental clerical technicians, 
dental X-ray technicians, acrylic eye illustrators, and so forth, 
will be given special examination questions in their specialties. 
The special section of the examination shall include 25% of the 
total number of questions, the remaining 75% to be chosen from 
the questions in the general examination for Dentalman. All 
examinations shall have the same number of questions; there- 
fore, an equal number of questions, as nearly as possible, should 
be eliminated from .201, .202, .203, and .205 for the special 
examinations so that a question receives the same value or credit 
each time it is asked, on either kind of examination. 
.204 SPECIALIZED TECHNICAL EXAMINATIONS 
Organization of Dental Department aboard own ship or at 
station. 
.205 ORGANIZATION 
105